- #1
Henk
- 22
- 0
For a statistical mechanics course we have to prove Van Leeuwen's theorem: Diamagnetism does not exist in classical physics.
I know that in an external magnetic field H the Hamiltonian Ha goes from Ha(p1,p2,--------,pN ,q1,q2,-------qN) to Ha(p1-(e/c)A1, p2-(e/c)A2, ------- pN-(e/c)AN, q1,q2,------.qN)
I also know that the induced magnetization M = kT*d(log QN)/dH
So the problem is finding QN. I know how to calculate it for a perfect gas without the magnetic field but I can't seem to solve the integral when Ha changes.
I know that in an external magnetic field H the Hamiltonian Ha goes from Ha(p1,p2,--------,pN ,q1,q2,-------qN) to Ha(p1-(e/c)A1, p2-(e/c)A2, ------- pN-(e/c)AN, q1,q2,------.qN)
I also know that the induced magnetization M = kT*d(log QN)/dH
So the problem is finding QN. I know how to calculate it for a perfect gas without the magnetic field but I can't seem to solve the integral when Ha changes.