Proving a^1729 = a (mod 1729) for all n

  • Thread starter Icebreaker
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Hencea = a^(n-1) = a ( mod n ) Therefore a^1729 = a ( mod 1729 )In summary, the conversation discusses the conjecture that a^k = a (mod n) for all n, which was proven to be false. The goal was to show that a^1729 = a (mod 1729) for all a, which was achieved by proving that a^12 = a (mod 13) and a^1729 = a (mod 1729) for all a. This was done by showing that a
  • #1
Icebreaker
[SOLVED] Strong Pseudo-Primes

How would I show that a^1729 = a (mod 1729) for all n?
 
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  • #2
Without further hypotheses on a and n, you wouldn't. For example, 5^1729 = 9 (mod 11).

Any similar conjecture will also be false. That is to say, let k be some fixed number. Then "a^k = a (mod n) for all n" is false, since it would imply that there would not be exist a primitive root mod p for p > k - 1, p prime.
 
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  • #3
attempt to show by successive squaring
 
  • #4
Muzza said:
Without further hypotheses on a and n, you wouldn't. For example, 5^1729 = 9 (mod 11).

Any similar conjecture will also be false. That is to say, let k be some fixed number. Then "a^k = a (mod n) for all n" is false, since it would imply that there would not be exist a primitive root mod p for p > k - 1, p prime.

The conjecture was that a^k=a. In your counterexample, that is, 5^1729=9, 5!=9.
 
  • #5
The conjecture was that a^k=a. In your counterexample, that is, 5^1729=9, 5!=9.

Yes. What's your point?! 5 != 9 (mod 11) is precisely what makes it a counterexample to the conjecture, hence the conjecture isn't true.
 
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  • #6
is it a conjecture that you are trying to show or are you asked to find a solution "a" to the question?
 
  • #7
I must show for all a. The modolus is the same as the exponent. The modulus is not a prime, therefore Fermat's little theorem does not apply.
 
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  • #8
ok i think you need toi restate your quesiton.

"How would I show that a^1729 = a (mod 1729) (for all n)?"
there is no n in this statement though i rememebr there being one.
 
  • #9
I must show for all a. The modolus is the same as the exponent. The modulus is not a prime, therefore Fermat's little theorem does not apply.

I'll assume that what you actually want to prove is that a^1729 = a (mod 1729) for all a.

Since 1729 = 7*13*29, this is equivalent to showing that

a^1729 = a (mod 7),
a^1729 = a (mod 13), and
a^1729 = a (mod 19)

for all a. That should be easy.
 
  • #10
Yes, because, say, a^12 = 1 (mod 13). Thanks for the help.
 
  • #11


I still was confused wether the answer or question is correct ..



I'll assume that what you actually want
to prove is that a^1730 == a (mod 1729) for all a.

since 1730 = 1729 + 1 == 1 ( mod 1729 ), we have 1730 mod 1729 = 1

<=>

a^1 = a, hence a^1730 = a^1 = a ( mod 1729 )

a^1729 == a^0 = 1 ( mod 1729 )

<=>

1729 == 1 ( mod 1729 )

= = =

Since 1729 = 7*13*29, this is equivalent to showing that

a^1729 = a (mod 7),
a^1729 = a (mod 13), and
a^1729 = a (mod 19)

for all a. ??

Well 1729 = 7x13x19
<=>
1729 mod 1729 = 0
1729 mod 7 = 0
1729 mod 13 = 0
1729 mod 19 = 0

So a^1729 = a^0 = 1 (mod 1279),which only equals a for a=1 ...
 
  • #12


a^12 = 1 (mod 13).

13 = 12 + 1
12 mod 13 = 1,

a^12 = a ( mod 13 )

a^12 = a^0 = 1 (mod 12 )

Actually

a^(n+1) = a ( mod n )

a^n = 1 ( mod n )
 
  • #13


a^(n-1) = a^(-1) ( mod n )
 

FAQ: Proving a^1729 = a (mod 1729) for all n

How can we prove that a^1729 = a (mod 1729) for all n?

To prove this statement, we can use mathematical induction. We start by showing that the statement holds for n = 1, which is a^1729 = a (mod 1729). Then, we assume that the statement holds for some arbitrary value k and use this assumption to prove that it also holds for k+1. This will show that the statement holds for all values of n, and thus prove the statement to be true.

Can you explain what "a (mod 1729)" means in this context?

The notation a (mod 1729) represents the remainder when a is divided by 1729. In other words, a (mod 1729) is the number that is left over after dividing a by 1729.

Why is it important to prove this statement for all n?

Proving this statement for all n means that it holds true for any possible value of n. This is important because it ensures that the statement is universally valid and not just true for a specific set of values. It also demonstrates a thorough understanding of the concept and allows for the application of this result in various mathematical contexts.

Is there a specific method or formula to prove this statement?

Yes, we can use the Binomial Theorem and the properties of modular arithmetic to prove this statement. The Binomial Theorem states that (a+b)^n = a^n + nC1a^(n-1)b + nC2a^(n-2)b^2 + ... + b^n. By substituting b = 1728, we can expand the left side of the equation, and then use the properties of modular arithmetic to simplify it and arrive at a^1729 = a (mod 1729).

Can this statement be generalized to other values besides 1729?

Yes, this statement can be generalized to any integer m. In other words, a^m = a (mod m) for all n. The proof follows the same steps as mentioned in the first question, but with m instead of 1729. This statement is known as Fermat's Little Theorem and has various applications in number theory and cryptography.

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