- #1
kingwinner
- 1,270
- 0
"Let m and k be positive integers and φ(m) is the Euler's phi function. Then the number of integers n such that 1≤n≤mk and (n,m)=1 is kφ(m)."
I can't figure out why this is true. How can we prove it?
Can someone explain this, please?
Any help is appreciated!
I can't figure out why this is true. How can we prove it?
Can someone explain this, please?
Any help is appreciated!