Proving inf(x) = lim with Cauchy Sequence

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In summary, to prove that there exists a sequence x_1, x_2, ... in E such that x=lim(x_n), we can use the bisection method to find the infimum x of the set E and then construct a sequence that converges to x. This approach is similar to the one used to find the supremum of a set.
  • #1
*melinda*
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Question:

Suppose there is a set [itex]E\subset \Re[/itex] is bounded from below.
Let [itex]x=inf(E)[/itex]
Prove there exists a sequence [itex]x_1, x_2,... \in E[/itex], such that [itex]x=lim(x_n)[/itex].

I am not sure but it seems like my [itex]x=lim(x_n) =liminf(x_n)[/itex].
In class we constructed a Cauchy sequence by bisection to find sup. To do this proof I was thinking that I should do the same, but do it to find inf.

Does this seem like it will work?
Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks.
 
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  • #2
Yes, your approach is correct. You can use the same method of bisection to find the infimum of the set, and then construct a sequence that converges to it. The idea is to start with an interval [a,b] that covers E. Then, use the bisection method to find the infimum x. This means you will take the midpoint c of the interval [a,b] and check whether c is in E or not. If c is in E, then the infimum of E must be less than c, so you can then reduce the interval to [a,c]. If c is not in E, then the infimum of E must be greater than c, so you can reduce the interval to [c,b]. You can repeat this process until the interval is of size less than some arbitrary tolerance. Once you have found the infimum x, you can easily construct a sequence x_1, x_2, ... in E that converges to x by choosing elements of E that are close enough to x.
 
  • #3


I can say that your approach seems reasonable and could potentially work. Using bisection to construct a Cauchy sequence to find the infimum of a set is a valid method. However, it is important to provide a more detailed explanation and proof to support your reasoning.

First, let us define the Cauchy sequence x_n as follows: x_1 is the midpoint of the interval [a, b] where a is the lower bound of E and b is any upper bound of E. Then, for n > 1, x_n is the midpoint of the interval [a_n, b_n], where a_n is the lower bound of E and b_n is the previous x_n.

Next, we can prove that this sequence is Cauchy. By construction, the intervals [a_n, b_n] are getting smaller and smaller, and since E is bounded from below, the sequence x_n is also bounded. Therefore, by the Nested Interval Theorem, the sequence x_n must converge to a point x.

Now, we need to show that x is the infimum of E. Since x_n is a Cauchy sequence, it must be that for any \epsilon > 0, there exists an N \in \mathbb{N} such that for all m, n > N, |x_m - x_n| < \epsilon. In other words, the distance between any two terms in the sequence becomes arbitrarily small as the terms approach the limit x.

Since x is the limit of x_n, we can choose \epsilon = \frac{1}{n} and find an N such that for all m > N, |x_m - x| < \frac{1}{n}. This means that x_n is within \frac{1}{n} of x for all n > N, and since x_n is an element of E, x must also be an element of E. Therefore, x is a lower bound of E.

Finally, we need to show that x is the greatest lower bound of E. Suppose there exists a lower bound y < x. This means that there exists an element y' \in E such that y' < y. However, since x_n is a Cauchy sequence that converges to x, for any \epsilon > 0, there exists an N \in \mathbb{N} such that for all n > N, |x_n
 

FAQ: Proving inf(x) = lim with Cauchy Sequence

What is a Cauchy sequence?

A Cauchy sequence is a sequence of real numbers where the terms become closer and closer together as the sequence progresses. Formally, a sequence {an} is Cauchy if for any positive real number ε, there exists a positive integer N such that for all m, n ≥ N, the absolute difference |am - an| is less than ε.

How is a Cauchy sequence used to prove the limit of a function?

A Cauchy sequence can be used to prove the limit of a function by showing that the sequence of function values converges to the limit. This is done by first showing that the sequence is Cauchy, and then using the completeness property of real numbers to prove that the limit exists.

What is the completeness property of real numbers?

The completeness property of real numbers states that every Cauchy sequence of real numbers converges to a limit in the real number system. In other words, the real number system is complete, meaning that there are no "gaps" or missing values in between numbers.

Can a function have a limit without being equal to the limit of a Cauchy sequence?

Yes, a function can have a limit without being equal to the limit of a Cauchy sequence. This is because a function can have multiple Cauchy sequences that converge to different limits, or even no Cauchy sequence at all.

How do you prove that inf(x) = lim using a Cauchy sequence?

To prove that inf(x) = lim using a Cauchy sequence, you must show that the sequence of function values is Cauchy and that the limit of the sequence is equal to the infimum of the function. This can be done by using the definition of a Cauchy sequence and the properties of infimum, such as the fact that it is the greatest lower bound of a set of numbers.

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