- #1
*melinda*
- 86
- 0
Question:
Suppose there is a set [itex]E\subset \Re[/itex] is bounded from below.
Let [itex]x=inf(E)[/itex]
Prove there exists a sequence [itex]x_1, x_2,... \in E[/itex], such that [itex]x=lim(x_n)[/itex].
I am not sure but it seems like my [itex]x=lim(x_n) =liminf(x_n)[/itex].
In class we constructed a Cauchy sequence by bisection to find sup. To do this proof I was thinking that I should do the same, but do it to find inf.
Does this seem like it will work?
Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks.
Suppose there is a set [itex]E\subset \Re[/itex] is bounded from below.
Let [itex]x=inf(E)[/itex]
Prove there exists a sequence [itex]x_1, x_2,... \in E[/itex], such that [itex]x=lim(x_n)[/itex].
I am not sure but it seems like my [itex]x=lim(x_n) =liminf(x_n)[/itex].
In class we constructed a Cauchy sequence by bisection to find sup. To do this proof I was thinking that I should do the same, but do it to find inf.
Does this seem like it will work?
Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks.