Proving Inverses in Z/mZ* for Non-Prime Numbers

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In summary, the conversation discusses the topic of Z/mZ*, where m is a nonnegative integer. The teacher showed that in Z/12Z*, every element is its own inverse. The attempt at a solution includes trying to prove that x^2 ≡ 1 (mod p) for x ∈ Z/mZ*. However, it is noted that this only holds for certain values of m, such as prime numbers or even composites. The conversation ends with the suggestion to look into quadratic reciprocity and the Legendre and Jacobi symbols for a better understanding of this phenomenon.
  • #1
fishturtle1
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Homework Statement


In class yesterday we were learning about Z/mZ* where m is any nonnegative integer. At the very end(no time left), the teacher showed in Z/12Z* = {1, 5, 7, 11}, every element is its own inverse.

So ##1*1 \equiv 1 \operatorname{(mod p)}##
##5*5 \equiv 1 \operatorname{(modp)}##.. etc.

So I want to prove: Let ##x \epsilon \mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z}^*##. Then ##x = x^{-1}##, that is ##x^2 \equiv 1 \operatorname{(mod p)}.##

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Suppose ##x \epsilon \mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z}^*##. Then ##\gcd(a, m) = 1##. So
##au + mv = 1## for some integers u, v. We calculate ##(au)^2 = (1 - mv)^2## and get ##a^2u^2 = m^2v^2 - 2mv + 1##... but there's no way to say ##u = 1## so i don't think this is the way..

I think I can prove this for prime numbers..Edit2: Never mind I think i just showed 1^2 = 1...
Edit1: Let ##x \epsilon \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}^*## where p is prime. Then ##\gcd(x,p) = 1##. So ##x^{p-1} \equiv 1 \operatorname{(mod p)}##. Then ##x^{p-1}x^{p-1} = x^{2(p-1)} = x^{{(p-1)}^2} \equiv 1^2 = 1 \operatorname{(modp)}##
 
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  • #2
fishturtle1 said:

Homework Statement


In class yesterday we were learning about Z/mZ* where m is any nonnegative integer. At the very end(no time left), the teacher showed in Z/12Z* = {1, 5, 7, 11}, every element is its own inverse.

So ##1*1 \equiv 1 \operatorname{(mod p)}##
##5*5 \equiv 1 \operatorname{(modp)}##.. etc.

So I want to prove: Let ##x \epsilon \mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z}^*##. Then ##x = x^{-1}##, that is ##x^2 \equiv 1 \operatorname{(mod p)}.##

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


Suppose ##x \epsilon \mathbb{Z}/m\mathbb{Z}^*##. Then ##\gcd(a, m) = 1##. So
##au + mv = 1## for some integers u, v. We calculate ##(au)^2 = (1 - mv)^2## and get ##a^2u^2 = m^2v^2 - 2mv + 1##... but there's no way to say ##u = 1## so i don't think this is the way..

I think I can prove this for prime numbers..Edit2: Never mind I think i just showed 1^2 = 1...
Edit1: Let ##x \epsilon \mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z}^*## where p is prime. Then ##\gcd(x,p) = 1##. So ##x^{p-1} \equiv 1 \operatorname{(mod p)}##. Then ##x^{p-1}x^{p-1} = x^{2(p-1)} = x^{{(p-1)}^2} \equiv 1^2 = 1 \operatorname{(modp)}##
What is ##3^{-1} \in \mathbb{Z}_7\,##?
 
  • #3
fresh_42 said:
What is ##3^{-1} \in \mathbb{Z}_7\,##?
5. So this doesn't hold for any m.. so maybe this holds only for composite m's? but that doesn't work because
##2*2 \equiv 4 \not\equiv 1 \operatorname{(mod 9)}##..
so then maybe it holds for only even composites? no that doesn't work since
##3*3 \equiv 9 \not\equiv 1 \operatorname{(mod 10)}##..

so was this just a coincidence?
 
  • #4
fishturtle1 said:
5. So this doesn't hold for any m.. so maybe this holds only for composite m's? but that doesn't work because
##2*2 \equiv 4 \not\equiv 1 \operatorname{(mod 9)}##..
so then maybe it holds for only even composites? no that doesn't work since
##3*3 \equiv 9 \not\equiv 1 \operatorname{(mod 10)}##..

so was this just a coincidence?
We know ##(m-1)^2 = m^2 - 2m + 1 = m(m - 2) + 1## so (m-1)^2 \equiv 1 (mod m). It seems in general, we can rewrite any ##x \epsilon \mathbb{Z}_m## as ##x = m - r## ,where ##0 < r \le m-1##. So ##x^2 = (m-r)^2 = m^2 -2mr + r^2 = m(m - 2r) + r^2##. So, ##x^2 \equiv r^2 (\mod m)##. ... so yeah this seems like a coincidence...
 
  • #5
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  • #7
fishturtle1 said:
so yeah this seems like a coincidence...

Largely coincidence, I think. You have a group with four elements and there are only two possibilities. It's either the Klein 4-Group (like this one and Z/8Z*) or it's cyclic (like Z/5Z* and Z/10Z*).
 
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FAQ: Proving Inverses in Z/mZ* for Non-Prime Numbers

What is the definition of an inverse in Z/mZ*?

An inverse in Z/mZ* is an element that, when multiplied by another element, results in the multiplicative identity (1) in the group Z/mZ*.

How do you prove that an element has an inverse in Z/mZ*?

To prove that an element has an inverse in Z/mZ*, you must show that the element is relatively prime to m. This means that the greatest common divisor of the element and m is 1.

Can an element have more than one inverse in Z/mZ*?

No, an element in Z/mZ* can only have one inverse. This is because the inverse must be unique in order for the group to be well-defined.

What is the significance of proving inverses in Z/mZ*?

Proving inverses in Z/mZ* is important because it ensures that every element in the group has an inverse, which is necessary for the group to be a field. This is a fundamental concept in abstract algebra and has many applications in various areas of mathematics and computer science.

Are there any shortcuts or tricks for proving inverses in Z/mZ*?

Yes, there are some shortcuts and tricks for proving inverses in Z/mZ*. For example, if m is prime, then every element in Z/mZ* has an inverse. Additionally, if m is a power of a prime number, then you can use the Euclidean algorithm to find the inverse of an element more efficiently.

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