Proving m(X)=0: Sequence of Measurable Sets

In summary, the conversation discusses the problem of proving that the measure of a specific set X is equal to 0. The conversation includes the use of a theorem and the attempt at a solution using nested intervals. However, it is mentioned that the limit is 0 due to the fact that the sum of the measures of the subsets is finite. The conversation ends with a question about the intervals being strictly nested or if there can be a smallest interval.
  • #1
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Homework Statement


Let [itex](X_n)[/itex] be a sequence of measurable subsets of [itex]\mathbb R[/itex] such that

[tex]\sum_{i=1}^\infty m(X_i) < \infty[/tex]

Define

[tex]X = \bigcap_{i=1}^\infty \left( \bigcup_{j=i}^\infty X_j \right)[/tex]

Prove that m(X) = 0.

Homework Equations


Theorem. Let [itex](E_n)[/itex] be a sequence of measurable sets such that [itex]E_{n+1} \subseteq E_n[/itex] and [itex]m(E_1) < \infty[/itex]. Then

[tex]m\left(\bigcap_{i=1}^\infty E_i \right) = \lim_{i \to \infty} m(E_i)[/tex]


The Attempt at a Solution


Define [itex]E_i = \bigcup\limits_{j=i}^\infty X_j[/itex]. Then by the aforementioned theorem,

[tex]m(X) = \lim_{i \to \infty} m(E_i)[/tex]

My only problem is showing that the limit is in fact 0. I haven't used that [itex]\sum m(X_i) < \infty[/itex]. Any tips?
 
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  • #2
you can say that m(X) <= m(E_{i}) for each i, and
m(E_{i}) = lim m(X_{j}) = 0 since the sum was finite.
 
  • #3
I don't understand why [itex]m(E_i) = \lim m(X_j)[/itex]. We have that

[tex]E_i = \bigcup_{j=i}^\infty X_j[/tex]

so

[tex]m(E_i) \le \sum_{j=i}^\infty m(X_j)[/tex]

I do agree that [itex]\lim m(X_j) = 0[/itex].
 
  • #4
are these intervals strictly nested or can there be a smallest interval?

[edit] i need clarifying: what exactly is INT(UNION(X_i)) with two indexes i and j?
 
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  • #5
sorry that's only true if the E_{i} where increasing, but

[tex]lim_{i\rightarrow\infty}\left(\sum^{\infty}_{j=i}m(X_{j})\right) =lim_{i\rightarrow\infty}m(X_{i}) [/tex].

recall that if an infinite series converges you can make the remainder sum arbitrarily small.
 
  • #6
You're right. That didn't occur to me. Thanks for the tip.
 

FAQ: Proving m(X)=0: Sequence of Measurable Sets

How do I prove that m(X) equals 0?

To prove that m(X) equals 0, you must show that the measure of the set X is equal to 0. This can be done by using the definition of measurable sets and the properties of measures.

What is a sequence of measurable sets?

A sequence of measurable sets is a collection of sets that can be arranged in a specific order and each set in the sequence is measurable. This sequence is often denoted as {An}.

How do I show that a sequence of measurable sets has a measure of 0?

To show that a sequence of measurable sets has a measure of 0, you need to prove that the measure of each individual set in the sequence is equal to 0. This can be done by using the properties of measures and the definition of measurable sets.

Can a sequence of measurable sets have a measure other than 0?

Yes, a sequence of measurable sets can have a measure other than 0. It is possible for the measure of each individual set in the sequence to be non-zero, but as long as the sequence converges to 0, the overall measure of the sequence will also be 0.

Why is proving m(X)=0 important?

Proving that m(X)=0 is important because it allows us to show that the set X has no measurable parts, meaning it has a measure of 0. This information can be useful in various mathematical and scientific applications, such as in integration and probability theory.

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