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Homework Statement
Let [itex](X_n)[/itex] be a sequence of measurable subsets of [itex]\mathbb R[/itex] such that
[tex]\sum_{i=1}^\infty m(X_i) < \infty[/tex]
Define
[tex]X = \bigcap_{i=1}^\infty \left( \bigcup_{j=i}^\infty X_j \right)[/tex]
Prove that m(X) = 0.
Homework Equations
Theorem. Let [itex](E_n)[/itex] be a sequence of measurable sets such that [itex]E_{n+1} \subseteq E_n[/itex] and [itex]m(E_1) < \infty[/itex]. Then
[tex]m\left(\bigcap_{i=1}^\infty E_i \right) = \lim_{i \to \infty} m(E_i)[/tex]
The Attempt at a Solution
Define [itex]E_i = \bigcup\limits_{j=i}^\infty X_j[/itex]. Then by the aforementioned theorem,
[tex]m(X) = \lim_{i \to \infty} m(E_i)[/tex]
My only problem is showing that the limit is in fact 0. I haven't used that [itex]\sum m(X_i) < \infty[/itex]. Any tips?