- #1
John112
- 19
- 0
[itex]\forall[/itex] b[itex]\in[/itex] [itex]Z[/itex] b [itex]\equiv[/itex] 1 (mod 2) [itex]\Rightarrow[/itex] b[itex]^{2}[/itex] [itex]\equiv[/itex] 1 (mod 8)
How do I go about proving this? Can the Chinese Remainder Theorem be used to prove this or is there something easier?
How do I go about proving this? Can the Chinese Remainder Theorem be used to prove this or is there something easier?