- #1
Pearce_09
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tricky algebra proof...
hello,
consider the mappings: (R: A-->B)
Suppose T: C-->A and S: C-->A satisfy RT = RS then T = S
prove that there exists a; b: B-->A such that bR = idA (identity of A)
well, I am not sure if I can say that b (inverse) = R
since b maps B to A .. and R maps A to B... and if i can say that...
how do i approach the proof?
I know that RT = RS then T = S.. should i work with this.? using b (inverse)...
or should i try to see if R or b is injective?...
ie. b(inverse)T = b(inverse)S ... ??
hello,
consider the mappings: (R: A-->B)
Suppose T: C-->A and S: C-->A satisfy RT = RS then T = S
prove that there exists a; b: B-->A such that bR = idA (identity of A)
well, I am not sure if I can say that b (inverse) = R
since b maps B to A .. and R maps A to B... and if i can say that...
how do i approach the proof?
I know that RT = RS then T = S.. should i work with this.? using b (inverse)...
or should i try to see if R or b is injective?...
ie. b(inverse)T = b(inverse)S ... ??