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HMPARTICLE
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Homework Statement
Let a be a positive number. Then there exists exactly one natural number b such that b++ =a.
3. My attempt;
Axiom 2.4
Different natural numbers must have different successors; if n, m are natural numbers and n is not equal to m, then n++ is not equal to m++. equivalently if n++ = m++ then n = m.
Let a be a positive number. Then there exists exactly one natural number such that b++ = a.
PROOF
Let P(b) be the statement Let a be a positive number. Then there exists exactly one natural number such that b++ = a..
Then P(0) is true since 0++ = 1 > 0
Suppose that c++ = d is true where c in N and d in N - {0}.
Now we wish to deduce that (c++)++ = d++ is true. This is the case since (c++)++ is the increment a natural number and d++ is the increment of the positive number d. Hence the inductive is true and by Axiom 2.4 b is unique. Hence P(b) is true.
Is this true? sloppy? false? total rubbish?
I'm an undergrad who is new to analysis and proof.
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