Proving the Zero Lebesgue Measure of Continuous Real Functions: Guidance Needed

In summary: Worried)Since the Lebesgue integral is in the next chapter, is there an other way to show it, besides using Fubini's Theorem??... (Worried)Yes, there is another way to show it. You can use the Cauchy integral theorem. Yes, there is another way to show it. You can use the Cauchy integral theorem.
  • #1
mathmari
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Hey! :eek:

I have the following exercise..

Show that the $2$-dimensional Lebesgue measure of the graph of a continuous real function is zero.

Could you give some hints what I could do?? (Wondering)
 
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  • #2
mathmari said:
Hey! :eek:

I have the following exercise..

Show that the $2$-dimensional Lebesgue measure of the graph of a continuous real function is zero.

Could you give some hints what I could do?? (Wondering)

Hi mathmari,

Let $G$ be the graph of a continuous function $f : A \to \Bbb R$, where $A\subset \Bbb R$. Show that $G$ is a closed subset of $A \times A$. Since $G$ is closed, it is measurable. So you can use the Fubini theorem to show that $m^2(G) = 0$.
 
  • #3
Euge said:
Hi mathmari,

Let $G$ be the graph of a continuous function $f : A \to \Bbb R$, where $A\subset \Bbb R$. Show that $G$ is a closed subset of $A \times A$. Since $G$ is closed, it is measurable. So you can use the Fubini theorem to show that $m^2(G) = 0$.

To show that $G$ is a closed subset of $A\times A$ I did the following:

Let $G=\{(x,f(x))|x\in A\}$ be the graph of the continuous function $f$.

Since $f$ is continuous for each convergent subsequence $x_k\rightarrow x$ we have that $f(x_k) \rightarrow f(x)$.

Therefore, each sequence of the form $(x_n, f(xn))\in G$ converges to $(x,f(x))\in G$.

So, the graph is a closed subset of $A\times A$.

Is this correct?? (Wondering)
 
  • #4
mathmari said:
To show that $G$ is a closed subset of $A\times A$ I did the following:

Let $G=\{(x,f(x))|x\in A\}$ be the graph of the continuous function $f$.

Since $f$ is continuous for each convergent subsequence $x_k\rightarrow x$ we have that $f(x_k) \rightarrow f(x)$.

Therefore, each sequence of the form $(x_n, f(xn))\in G$ converges to $(x,f(x))\in G$.

So, the graph is a closed subset of $A\times A$.

Is this correct?? (Wondering)

No, it's incorrect, but you have some good ideas. To show that $G$ is a closed subset of $A\times A$, start by taking an arbitrary limit point $(x,y)\in A\times A$ and show that $(x,y)\in G$, i.e., $y = f(x)$. Being a limit point of $G$, $(x,y)$ is the limit of a sequence $(x_k, f(x_k))$ in $G$. Thus $x_k\to x$ and $f(x_k)\to y$. Use continuity of $f$ to deduce $f(x) = y$.
 
  • #5
Euge said:
No, it's incorrect, but you have some good ideas. To show that $G$ is a closed subset of $A\times A$, start by taking an arbitrary limit point $(x,y)\in A\times A$ and show that $(x,y)\in G$, i.e., $y = f(x)$. Being a limit point of $G$, $(x,y)$ is the limit of a sequence $(x_k, f(x_k))$ in $G$. Thus $x_k\to x$ and $f(x_k)\to y$. Use continuity of $f$ to deduce $f(x) = y$.

I got stuck right now... (Worried)

When we take $(x,y)\in A\times A$ and we show that $(x,y)\in G$, do we not show in that way that $A\times A$ is a subset of $G$ ?? (Wondering)
 
  • #6
mathmari said:
I got stuck right now... (Worried)

When we take $(x,y)\in A\times A$ and we show that $(x,y)\in G$, do we not show in that way that $A\times A$ is a subset of $G$ ?? (Wondering)

No, we didn't pick an arbitrary point in $A \times A$, but an arbitrary limit point of $G$, which lies in $A\times A$.
 
  • #7
Euge said:
No, we didn't pick an arbitrary point in $A \times A$, but an arbitrary limit point of $G$, which lies in $A\times A$.

Ahaa.. OK!

Euge said:
Let $G$ be the graph of a continuous function $f : A \to \Bbb R$, where $A\subset \Bbb R$. Show that $G$ is a closed subset of $A \times A$. Since $G$ is closed, it is measurable. So you can use the Fubini theorem to show that $m^2(G) = 0$.

Could you explain me how I could use the Fubini theorem to show that $m^2(G)=0$ ?? (Wondering)
 
  • #8
mathmari said:
Could you explain me how I could use the Fubini theorem to show that $m^2(G)=0$ ?? (Wondering)

The $x$-section of $G$ is $G^x = \{y\, :\, y = f(x)\} = \{f(x)\}$. So $m^1(G^x) = 0$ for all $x$. Hence by Fubini's theorem, $m^2(G) = \int m^1(G^x)\, dx = \int 0\, dx = 0$.
 
  • #9
Euge said:
The $x$-section of $G$ is $G^x = \{y\, :\, y = f(x)\} = \{f(x)\}$. So $m^1(G^x) = 0$ for all $x$. Hence by Fubini's theorem, $m^2(G) = \int m^1(G^x)\, dx = \int 0\, dx = 0$.

Since the Lebesgue integral is in the next chapter, is there an other way to show it, besides using Fubini's Theorem?? (Wondering)
 
  • #10
mathmari said:
Since the Lebesgue integral is in the next chapter, is there an other way to show it, besides using Fubini's Theorem?? (Wondering)

Before that, let me ask you this. What was the domain of $f$ supposed to be?
 
  • #11
Euge said:
Before that, let me ask you this. What was the domain of $f$ supposed to be?

I don't know... (Wondering) The exercise says nothing about the domain of $f$...
 
  • #12
mathmari said:
I don't know... (Wondering) The exercise says nothing about the domain of $f$...

Let's suppose the domain of $f$ is $\Bbb R$, so that $G = \{(x,y)\in \Bbb R^2\, |\, y = f(x)\}$. For each $n\in \Bbb N$, let $G_n = \{(x,y)\in G \, |\, |x| \le n\}$. Then \(\displaystyle G = \bigcup_{n=1}^\infty G_n\). Using uniform continuity arguments, show that $m^2(G_n) = 0$ for all $n\in \Bbb N$.
 

FAQ: Proving the Zero Lebesgue Measure of Continuous Real Functions: Guidance Needed

What is "zero Lebesgue measure"?

Zero Lebesgue measure refers to the measure of a set of points on a line, plane, or space that has a volume or area of zero. It is a concept used in measure theory, a branch of mathematics that deals with the concept of size or measure of sets and their properties.

How is "zero Lebesgue measure" different from other measures?

Zero Lebesgue measure is different from other measures, such as counting measure or length measure, because it takes into account the density of points in a set rather than just their number or length. It considers the size of a set in terms of its volume or area, rather than just its cardinality.

What is the significance of "zero Lebesgue measure"?

"Zero Lebesgue measure" is significant because it allows mathematicians to classify sets based on their size or measure. It also allows for the study of sets that are not measurable by other measures, such as the Cantor set, which has zero Lebesgue measure but infinite length.

How is "zero Lebesgue measure" used in real-world applications?

In real-world applications, "zero Lebesgue measure" is used in various fields such as physics, economics, and engineering. It helps in the study of fractals, which are objects with a non-integer dimension, and in understanding the behavior of continuous functions and their graphs.

Can "zero Lebesgue measure" ever be negative?

No, "zero Lebesgue measure" can never be negative. It is defined as the measure of a set that has a volume or area of zero, and by definition, a negative volume or area is not possible. However, it is possible for a set to have a measure of zero but still be considered an important mathematical concept.

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