- #1
bw0young0math
- 27
- 0
Hello, today I have a question.
If uni.cont. function sequence fn on (0,1) is uni.conv. to f on (0,1), then f is uni.cont. on (0,1).
The above is true.
The wonder I have is...May I prove the above by this way?
This way: fn is uniform continuous on (0,1). So Fn is continuous on [0,1] (by continuous extention theorem.)
If I can prove Fn is uni. convergent to F on [0,1], (since Fn is cont. on [0,1]) F is cont. on [0,1] and f is uni. cont. on (0,1).
is this way true?
IF it is true, how can I prove Fn is uni.conv. to F on [0,1]?
IF not, could you show me some counter example?Please...(Sadface)(Sadface)(Sadface)
If uni.cont. function sequence fn on (0,1) is uni.conv. to f on (0,1), then f is uni.cont. on (0,1).
The above is true.
The wonder I have is...May I prove the above by this way?
This way: fn is uniform continuous on (0,1). So Fn is continuous on [0,1] (by continuous extention theorem.)
If I can prove Fn is uni. convergent to F on [0,1], (since Fn is cont. on [0,1]) F is cont. on [0,1] and f is uni. cont. on (0,1).
is this way true?
IF it is true, how can I prove Fn is uni.conv. to F on [0,1]?
IF not, could you show me some counter example?Please...(Sadface)(Sadface)(Sadface)