- #1
LearninDaMath
- 295
- 0
Homework Statement
Someone in school was showing me this proof or problem that, I believe, proves or yields π via this limit: Lim x-->0 of [itex]\frac{xπcot(πx)}{x}[/itex]-[itex]\frac{1}{x}[/itex] = tan(0) = 0
And that this somehow related to a summation [itex]\sum1/k^{2}[/itex] as the sum goes from 1 to ∞.
I don't recall any of the details about the proof or what the proof is proving (but I think it has something to do with proving that that π=3.14 as the sum gets closer to infinity.)
Does anything like this look or sound familiar to any known proof?
Last edited: