- #1
grizz45
- 5
- 0
im stuck on this proof can anyone help?
Is it true that for all natural numbers n, for each natural number x, x^n − x is
divisible by n? If so, prove it; if not, explain why not.
so far i have gotten:
make x=1, ((1)^n) -1 = 0, therefore x=1 is divisible by n
assume true for x=k, ie: (k^n) - k is divisible by n
make x=k+1; ((k+1)^n)-(k+1)...and that's it!
Is it true that for all natural numbers n, for each natural number x, x^n − x is
divisible by n? If so, prove it; if not, explain why not.
so far i have gotten:
make x=1, ((1)^n) -1 = 0, therefore x=1 is divisible by n
assume true for x=k, ie: (k^n) - k is divisible by n
make x=k+1; ((k+1)^n)-(k+1)...and that's it!