Pulley problem with moment of inetia

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The discussion centers on calculating the acceleration of block A, which is influenced by the mass of block B and the moment of inertia of the pulley. The pulley, modeled as a thin disk with mass, introduces resistance to the system's acceleration due to its rotational inertia. Understanding the relationship between angular and linear acceleration is crucial, as the pulley’s mass affects the overall dynamics. The moment of inertia plays a key role in this scenario, as it impacts the acceleration experienced by block A. This problem highlights the complexities of incorporating rotational dynamics in systems with pulleys.
Iansno1
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Problem

As shown below, Block A has mass 'M' and rests on a surface with a coefficient of kinetic friction 'Uk' .The cord attached to A passes over a pulley at C and is attached to a block B of mass '2M'. If B is released calculate the acceleration of A.

Assume the cord does not slip over the pulley. The Pulley can be approximated as a thin disk of radius 'r' and mass 'M/4' . Neglect the mass of the cord
Relevant equations

moment of inertia of the disk: I=0.5*M*r2
Not sure where to start
 

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with free body diagrams?

ehild
 
How does the Moment of inertia come into the equation? I can do these problems when the pulley is assumed to have no mass and no friction.
 
Iansno1 said:
How does the Moment of inertia come into the equation? I can do these problems when the pulley is assumed to have no mass and no friction.

Moment of inertia is the analog of mass for rotational motion. The moment of inertia resists angular acceleration in the same fashion as mass resists linear acceleration.

In this problem the pulley adds resistance to the acceleration of the overall system because the cord does not slip, and so must cause angular acceleration of the pulley. The angular acceleration is related to the linear acceleration (how?).
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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