- #1
good_phy
- 45
- 0
Hi
Is it possible that same wavefuction described by math can be interpreted to different
aspect?
For instance, Some wrote wave function as same as momentum eigenstate which is
normalized
But he seemed claim that it is not momentum eigenstate even mathmetical formula is same
And he assumed it is in superposition of all momentum eigenstate in oder to find probability which eigenstate is chosen after momentum measurement
Is it possible? I know if current state is momentum eigenstate and we measure momemtum,
we must get same momentum as same as eigenvalue of that eigenstate and measurement
can not change current state.
Is it possible that same wavefuction described by math can be interpreted to different
aspect?
For instance, Some wrote wave function as same as momentum eigenstate which is
normalized
But he seemed claim that it is not momentum eigenstate even mathmetical formula is same
And he assumed it is in superposition of all momentum eigenstate in oder to find probability which eigenstate is chosen after momentum measurement
Is it possible? I know if current state is momentum eigenstate and we measure momemtum,
we must get same momentum as same as eigenvalue of that eigenstate and measurement
can not change current state.