Question About Harmonic Oscillator in Griffiths - E=0 or E=1/2hw?

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In Griffiths' treatment of the harmonic oscillator, the lowest energy state, denoted as ψ₀, corresponds to the vacuum state where the application of the lowering operator a₋ results in zero, indicating that it cannot have an energy of E = 0. Instead, the energy of this ground state is E₀ = ½ħω, as derived from the Hamiltonian. The confusion arises from interpreting a₋ψ₀ as a solution to the Schrödinger equation, which it is, but it does not represent a physical state since it leads to the zero wavefunction. The notation used by Griffiths clarifies this distinction, ensuring that ψ₀ is correctly identified as the ground state energy level. Understanding these concepts is crucial for grasping the quantum harmonic oscillator framework.
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I'm reading Griffiths', and I had a question about the harmonic oscillator.

Griffiths solves the Schrodinger equation using ladder operators, and he then says that there must be a "lowest rung," or \psi_{0}, such that a_\psi_{0} = 0. I'm guessing this also means that E = 0 for a_\psi_{0}, which is why it wouldn't be allowable.

Because a_\psi_{0} is (mathematically, at least) a solution to the Schrodinger equation, it corresponds to the energy (E_{0} - \hbar\omega), which equals zero. Doesn't this mean that E_{0} = \hbar\omega?

But then this conflicts with Griffith's statement that E_{0} = \frac{1}{2}\hbar\omega. HELP!
 
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Watch out! The statement a_- \psi_0 = 0 just says that when you apply the ladder operator to this state, you get nothing, i.e. the vacuum. Physicists have a tendency to use "natural" notation, and you will often see things like a_- |0\rangle = 0. Note that here the |0\rangle on the left hand side is a state (wavevector) and the 0 on the right hand side is the zero vector, which is not a state. Griffiths is just kind enough to call it \psi_0 instead of |0\rangle so you don't get completely confused :smile:

You say that a_- \psi_0 is a solution to the Schrodinger equation: that's right. But it isn't a physical solution. It's just the solution \psi = 0. The energy of \psi_0 is \frac12 \hbar \omega (formula 2.61) which can be seen by applying the Hamiltonian in the form (2.56) to this state and using that a_- annihilates it.

Hope that makes it more clear.
 
Thanks, CompuChip!
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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