- #1
MarcL
- 170
- 2
So I was reading my textbook and I confused myself about a theorem
Where if S={v,v2,...,vr} and in ℝn then if r>n, then it is linearly dependent
It doesn't make sense to me because if we look at 2 vectors in ℝ3 (lets say u and v)
we have u=(u1,u2,u3) and v=(v1,v2,v3)
So i do k1(u1,u2,u3)+k2(v1,v2,v3)=0
If i use a matrix:
u1 v1 0
u2 v2 0
u3 v3 0
Then it would seem to me as both vectors would be linearly dependent, no?
Where if S={v,v2,...,vr} and in ℝn then if r>n, then it is linearly dependent
It doesn't make sense to me because if we look at 2 vectors in ℝ3 (lets say u and v)
we have u=(u1,u2,u3) and v=(v1,v2,v3)
So i do k1(u1,u2,u3)+k2(v1,v2,v3)=0
If i use a matrix:
u1 v1 0
u2 v2 0
u3 v3 0
Then it would seem to me as both vectors would be linearly dependent, no?