- #1
kehler
- 104
- 0
Is the expectation value of momentum/position/energy the value that we're most likely to measure? So suppose we measure 100 particles with the same wavefunction, would we expect most of them to have momentum/position/energy that's equal to the expectation value? And I was wondering, how do we even measure the momentum of a particle described by a wavefunction?
Also, suppose a wavefunction is found to have a definite value of momentum/position/energy, does this necessarily mean that the expectation value of its momentum/position/K.Energy will be equal to that definite value?
And lastly, is it possible to have a wavefunction that has both definite momentum and position?
I'm a bit confused by these concepts. Any help would be much appreciated :)
Also, suppose a wavefunction is found to have a definite value of momentum/position/energy, does this necessarily mean that the expectation value of its momentum/position/K.Energy will be equal to that definite value?
And lastly, is it possible to have a wavefunction that has both definite momentum and position?
I'm a bit confused by these concepts. Any help would be much appreciated :)