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gangsta316
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Homework Statement
http://workspace.imperial.ac.uk/mathematics/public/students/ug/exampapers/2010/M2AA2-2010.PDF
Questions 3(iii) and 3(iv)
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
3(iii)
So here we "guess" that the solution is f = f(r) (f for phi). Then we just have to solve an ODE. But the mark scheme says that we get
1/r^2 * d/dr (r^2 *df/dr) = 1
Why?
The Laplacian is
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Laplace_operator#Two_dimensions
that.
So wouldn't we get
1/r *d/dr (r* df/dr) = 1?
3(iv)
How is this question done? I know that, with the method of images, we want to solve grad^2 = Dirac delta function, and we extend it to the whole of R^3. Then we solve it and appeal to uniqueness to show that it's the solution for y>0. But what would we do here?
Thanks for any help.