- #1
nacho-man
- 171
- 0
Please refer to the attached image.
for problem 1a)
i can see how this makes intuitive sense, however the hint confuses me.
When we are told that $A_n \subset A_{n+1}$ why would the hint say to attempt to express $A$ as as a union of countably many disjoint sets, when it is defined not to be disjoint in the question?
$P(A) = P(A_1) + ... + P(A_n)$ as $n$ approaches $\infty$
for problem 1a)
i can see how this makes intuitive sense, however the hint confuses me.
When we are told that $A_n \subset A_{n+1}$ why would the hint say to attempt to express $A$ as as a union of countably many disjoint sets, when it is defined not to be disjoint in the question?
$P(A) = P(A_1) + ... + P(A_n)$ as $n$ approaches $\infty$