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Doppler effect revisited
Am I right when I say that the doppler effect formula "f=f0((v+vo)/(v+vs))" is derivated from the classical theorem of speed addition and this is why the doppler effect for light and EM waves is different?
Am I right when I say that the doppler effect formula "f=f0((v+vo)/(v+vs))" is derivated from the classical theorem of speed addition and this is why the doppler effect for light and EM waves is different?
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