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Homework Statement
Let ##s_n(x) = \frac{1}{n} e^{-(nx)^2}##. Show there is a function ##s(x)## such that ##s_n(x) → s(x)## uniformly on ##ℝ## and that ##s_n'(x) → s'(x)## for every x, but that the convergence of the derivatives is not uniform in any interval which contains the origin.
Homework Equations
##s_n(x) → s(x)## as ##n→∞##
The Attempt at a Solution
For any real x, ##s_n(x) → 0 = s(x)## as ##n→∞## so we have pointwise convergence.
##\forall ε>0, \exists N(ε) \space | \space n>N \Rightarrow |s_n(x)-s(x)| < ε, \forall x \in ℝ##
##|s_n(x) - s(x)| ≤ 1/n##
So choosing ##n > 1/ε## means we have uniform convergence.
##s_n'(x) = -2xne^{-(nx)^2}##
Now, for all real x ##s_n'(x) → 0 = s'(x)## as ##n→∞##.
##|s_n'(x) - s'(x)| = 2|x|ne^{-(nx)^2}##
I'm stuck on showing the convergence of the derivatives is not uniform in any interval containing the origin. Don't really know how to argue this one.