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I am reading "Introduction to Ring Theory" by P. M. Cohn (Springer Undergraduate Mathematics Series)
In Chapter 1: Basics we find Theorem 1.15 on module homomorphisms and quotient modules. I need help with some aspects of the proof.
Theorem 1.15 reads as follows:
View attachment 3247
In the proof of the converse (see above text) Cohn states the following:
"If \(\displaystyle x\) is replaced by \(\displaystyle x + m\) where \(\displaystyle m \in M'\),
then \(\displaystyle x + m + M' = x + M'\) and \(\displaystyle mr \in M'\),
hence \(\displaystyle (x + m)r + M' = xr + mr + M' = xr +M'\),
therefore the action of \(\displaystyle R\) on the cosets is well defined … … "
I am uncertain about what is going on here … … can someone please explain to me why/how the above text does indeed show that the action of \(\displaystyle R\) on the cosets is well defined?
Help will be appreciated.
Peter
***EDIT*** (SOLVED?)
I think I should have reflected longer on this matter!
Now we take an element \(\displaystyle x \in M\) and \(\displaystyle r \in R\) and define the right action \(\displaystyle (x + M')r = xr + m\).
I now think that we have to show that if we take another element from the coset \(\displaystyle x + M'\) - say \(\displaystyle x + m\) where \(\displaystyle m \in M'\), that the effect of the action is the same - and this is what Cohn is doing ...
Can someone please confirm that this is correct?
In Chapter 1: Basics we find Theorem 1.15 on module homomorphisms and quotient modules. I need help with some aspects of the proof.
Theorem 1.15 reads as follows:
View attachment 3247
In the proof of the converse (see above text) Cohn states the following:
"If \(\displaystyle x\) is replaced by \(\displaystyle x + m\) where \(\displaystyle m \in M'\),
then \(\displaystyle x + m + M' = x + M'\) and \(\displaystyle mr \in M'\),
hence \(\displaystyle (x + m)r + M' = xr + mr + M' = xr +M'\),
therefore the action of \(\displaystyle R\) on the cosets is well defined … … "
I am uncertain about what is going on here … … can someone please explain to me why/how the above text does indeed show that the action of \(\displaystyle R\) on the cosets is well defined?
Help will be appreciated.
Peter
***EDIT*** (SOLVED?)
I think I should have reflected longer on this matter!
Now we take an element \(\displaystyle x \in M\) and \(\displaystyle r \in R\) and define the right action \(\displaystyle (x + M')r = xr + m\).
I now think that we have to show that if we take another element from the coset \(\displaystyle x + M'\) - say \(\displaystyle x + m\) where \(\displaystyle m \in M'\), that the effect of the action is the same - and this is what Cohn is doing ...
Can someone please confirm that this is correct?
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