- #1
wonguyen1995
- 13
- 0
Show that two metrics p and T on the same set X are equivalent if and only if there is a c > 0
such that for all u,v belong to X,
(1/c)T(u,v)=<p(u,v)=<cT(u,v)
Please help me , I'm so confused about Real Analysis.
such that for all u,v belong to X,
(1/c)T(u,v)=<p(u,v)=<cT(u,v)
Please help me , I'm so confused about Real Analysis.