- #1
fuentes1979
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- TL;DR Summary
- Reciprocal time dilation
Hello everyone,
I would be thankful ir someone explained where I am mistaken in this reasoning on Einstein’s mental experiment on Special Relativity.
Taking the railway as K reference frame, a light beam is thrown in the x positive direction the moment the train passes in the same positive direction at v= 2/3*c velocity. After a time t=1 sec taken from K frame, an observer situated in x=300000 km will receive the light beam.
Changing frames to K’ frame (the train) through Lorentz transformations we have that the said observer receives the light at x’ =(x-vt)/sqr(1-v2/c2) of 128972 km, bigger than the 100000 predicted by classical mechanics, so the lenghts are contracted in K’ as predicted by special relativity.
As relates time, t’=(t-vx/c2)/sqr(1-v2/c2) equals 0.4472 sec, so time is dilated in K’ as predicted by theory. As 128972/0.4472=c, everything is Ok.
Now, if we see the same situation considering the train as the K reference frame “at rest”, what we have is the light beam thrown the moment a moving observer at the railway passes with v=-2/3*c velocity. Now (from K) x= 300000 km, t=1 sec. From K’: x’= 670817 km, bigger than the 500000 km predicted by classical mechanics, so again the lenghts are contracted in the now moving reference frame ok K’, at the railway.
As for the time t’ though, it is now equal to 2.236 seconds according to: t’=t-(vx/c2)/sqr(1-v2/c2). Again 670817/2.236 equals c, but the problem is that now the time is not dilated, but contracted, in the moving reference frame of K’ (now the railway) as seen from K (now the train). That does not make sense as according to special relativity predictions, moving frames always show dilated times as mensures from frames at rest.
I cannot see which is my mistake. Could you please help me with this?
Thank you very much for your patience.
I would be thankful ir someone explained where I am mistaken in this reasoning on Einstein’s mental experiment on Special Relativity.
Taking the railway as K reference frame, a light beam is thrown in the x positive direction the moment the train passes in the same positive direction at v= 2/3*c velocity. After a time t=1 sec taken from K frame, an observer situated in x=300000 km will receive the light beam.
Changing frames to K’ frame (the train) through Lorentz transformations we have that the said observer receives the light at x’ =(x-vt)/sqr(1-v2/c2) of 128972 km, bigger than the 100000 predicted by classical mechanics, so the lenghts are contracted in K’ as predicted by special relativity.
As relates time, t’=(t-vx/c2)/sqr(1-v2/c2) equals 0.4472 sec, so time is dilated in K’ as predicted by theory. As 128972/0.4472=c, everything is Ok.
Now, if we see the same situation considering the train as the K reference frame “at rest”, what we have is the light beam thrown the moment a moving observer at the railway passes with v=-2/3*c velocity. Now (from K) x= 300000 km, t=1 sec. From K’: x’= 670817 km, bigger than the 500000 km predicted by classical mechanics, so again the lenghts are contracted in the now moving reference frame ok K’, at the railway.
As for the time t’ though, it is now equal to 2.236 seconds according to: t’=t-(vx/c2)/sqr(1-v2/c2). Again 670817/2.236 equals c, but the problem is that now the time is not dilated, but contracted, in the moving reference frame of K’ (now the railway) as seen from K (now the train). That does not make sense as according to special relativity predictions, moving frames always show dilated times as mensures from frames at rest.
I cannot see which is my mistake. Could you please help me with this?
Thank you very much for your patience.
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