- #1
DeusAbscondus
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I'm just experimenting with graphs of derivatives and have noticed something
that our teacher has never adverted to but strikes me as very interesting:
the third derivative when set to zero will give the inflection points of the first, which makes me reflect that the relationship which obtains between, say, the 1st and third, must be mathematically equivalent to the relationship obtaining between the 2nd and fourth, for instance.
Is this humble conjecture clear? if so, is it true?
I've included a graph which tries to illustrate this (I am fully aware of how basic this must seem to you guys, but *I* am having fun!:D)
Thanks for any comments,
Deus Abs
that our teacher has never adverted to but strikes me as very interesting:
the third derivative when set to zero will give the inflection points of the first, which makes me reflect that the relationship which obtains between, say, the 1st and third, must be mathematically equivalent to the relationship obtaining between the 2nd and fourth, for instance.
Is this humble conjecture clear? if so, is it true?
I've included a graph which tries to illustrate this (I am fully aware of how basic this must seem to you guys, but *I* am having fun!:D)
Thanks for any comments,
Deus Abs
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