Riesz Basis Problem: Definition & Problem Statement

In summary, the problem statement is that a vector space is defined to be the span of those functions, but the function values are not linearly independent. The problem is that the functions are not orthonormal, so the sum of the inner products is not 0. The solution is to use a Riesz basis and apply the Fourier transform.
  • #1
ashah99
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Homework Statement
Determine if {phi(t-n)} is a Riesz basis for the space V = Span({phi(t-n)})
Relevant Equations
The definition of the Riesz basis used for this problem is included below.
The reference definition and problem statement are shown below with my work shown following right after. I would like to know if I am approaching this correctly, and if not, could guidance be provided? Not very sure. I'm not proficient at formatting equations, so I'm providing snippets, my apologies. Thank you.

1624549070572.png

Problem:
1624549097060.png


My attempt at a solution:
1624549249133.png

1624549271842.png

1624549304560.png
 
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  • #2
I'm a little confused right at the start. Where did the ##\alpha_n## go? It looks like you replaced them with some functions of t, but I think they're just supposed to be arbitrary constants.
 
  • #3
Office_Shredder said:
I'm a little confused right at the start. Where did the ##\alpha_n## go? It looks like you replaced them with some functions of t, but I think they're just supposed to be arbitrary constants.
I was not sure how to begin so I used the functions given. How can I go about solving this correctly?
 
  • #4
I haven't read in detail but I suspect one or both of Cauchy-Schwatz, Holder or similar inequalities should be needed.
 
  • #5
There is a Wikipedia . I don't understand how translated Gaussians can be a basis - I assumed they couldn't.
 
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  • #6
Keith_McClary said:
There is a Wikipedia . I don't understand how translated Gaussians can be a basis - I assumed they couldn't.
The vector space is defined to be the span of those functions, so kind of definitionally they form a basis unless they are linearly dependent.

So let's recall some definitions. I'm assuming things are over the reals, is it's over the complex numbers just add some complex conjugates as needed. I think it doesn't affect anything.

$$\left< \phi(t-m), \phi(t-n\right> = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}} e^{-(t-m)^2}e^{-(t-n)^2} dt$$
$$||\sum_{k\in \mathbb{Z}} \alpha_k \phi(t-k)||^2 = \left< \sum_{m\in \mathbb{Z}} \alpha_m \phi(t-m), \sum_{n\in \mathbb{Z}} \alpha_n \phi(t-n) \right>$$

By linearity of the inner product, and assuming the necessary sums actually converge,this is equal to
$$\sum_{m,n\in \mathbb{Z}} \alpha_m \alpha_n \left<\phi(t-m),\phi(t-n)\right>$$

If the ##\phi(t-k)##s formed an orthonormal basis, then ##\left<\phi(t-m),\phi(t-n)\right>## is 0, except for when ##m=n## in which case you get 1. So that sum would always be exactly equal to
$$\sum_{k\in\mathbb{Z}} \alpha_k^2$$.

Of course they are not orthonormal. But if they form a Riesz basis, they are almost orthonormal, which means the norm squared is always
$$C\sum_{k\in\mathbb{Z}} \alpha_k^2$$

For some ##A\leq C\leq B## (where C will be different for different choices of ##\alpha_k##)
 
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  • #7
Office_Shredder said:
The vector space is defined to be the span of those functions, so kind of definitionally they form a basis unless they are linearly dependent.

So let's recall some definitions. I'm assuming things are over the reals, is it's over the complex numbers just add some complex conjugates as needed. I think it doesn't affect anything.

$$\left< \phi(t-m), \phi(t-n\right> = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}} e^{-(t-m)^2}e^{-(t-n)^2} dt$$
$$||\sum_{k\in \mathbb{Z}} \alpha_k \phi(t-k)||^2 = \left< \sum_{m\in \mathbb{Z}} \alpha_m \phi(t-m), \sum_{n\in \mathbb{Z}} \alpha_n \phi(t-n) \right>$$

By linearity of the inner product, and assuming the necessary sums actually converge,this is equal to
$$\sum_{m,n\in \mathbb{Z}} \alpha_m \alpha_n \left<\phi(t-m),\phi(t-n)\right>$$

If the ##\phi(t-k)##s formed an orthonormal basis, then ##\left<\phi(t-m),\phi(t-n)\right>## is 0, except for when ##m=n## in which case you get 1. So that sum would always be exactly equal to
$$\sum_{k\in\mathbb{Z}} \alpha_k^2$$.

Of course they are not orthonormal. But if they form a Riesz basis, they are almost orthonormal, which means the norm squared is always
$$C\sum_{k\in\mathbb{Z}} \alpha_k^2$$

For some ##A\leq C\leq B## (where C will be different for different choices of ##\alpha_k##)
So, the next step solving the question is just showing the 2nd condition of the Wikipedia page, Σ_{n ∈ ℤ} | F{ϕ}(2πn + ω) |^2 for some A, B > 0? Not sure how to go about this.
 
  • #8
Retrying this problem using the suggested Riesz sequence - Wikipedia link above, sorry for quality:

1624750648831.png


This is how far I got, but now stuck on using Fourier transform properties. Any ideas to proceed?
 
  • #9
I think I can do one direction, and it didn't require any equivalence theorem, but it was slightly non obvious. The other direction eludes me but is probably similar.Let's start with the simple step. Can you compute
$$\left<\phi(t-m),\phi(t-n)\right>$$

Edit to add: actually the other direction is basically the same. There's just one epsilon-clever trick I think once you compute the inner products to get over the finish line here. I doubt I got the optimal constants though.
 
  • #10
Office_Shredder said:
and it didn't require any equivalence theorem
Judging by the hint given (the Fourier transform ##\Phi(\Omega)## of ##\phi (t)##) can't we say that the problem want us to make use of the equivalence theorem?

Does your method use the hint?
 
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  • #11
Delta2 said:
Judging by the hint given (the Fourier transform ##\Phi(t)## of ##\phi (t)##) can't we say that the problem want us to make use of the equivalence theorem?

Does your method use the hint?

Oh that's funny, I thought the hint was just telling you in a roundabout way how to compute the inner product of two of these things. I guess this makes more sense to me why you would use this theorem on Wikipedia now.
 

FAQ: Riesz Basis Problem: Definition & Problem Statement

What is the Riesz Basis Problem?

The Riesz Basis Problem is a mathematical problem in functional analysis that seeks to determine whether a given set of functions forms a basis for a function space. It was first posed by Marcel Riesz in 1910.

What is the definition of a Riesz Basis?

A set of functions is considered a Riesz Basis if it is both a complete and minimal spanning set for a function space. This means that every function in the space can be written as a linear combination of the basis functions, and no proper subset of the basis can also span the space.

What is the importance of the Riesz Basis Problem?

The Riesz Basis Problem has applications in many areas of mathematics, including signal processing, quantum mechanics, and approximation theory. It also has connections to other important problems such as the Hilbert-Pólya Conjecture and the Schur-Horn Theorem.

What is the difference between a Riesz Basis and a Schauder Basis?

While both a Riesz Basis and a Schauder Basis are complete and minimal spanning sets, they differ in the type of convergence they guarantee. A Riesz Basis guarantees convergence in the norm of the function space, while a Schauder Basis only guarantees convergence in a weaker sense.

What is the current status of the Riesz Basis Problem?

The Riesz Basis Problem is still an open problem in mathematics, with no definitive solution yet. However, significant progress has been made in understanding the problem, and there are several partial results and conjectures that have been proposed.

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