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I want to know how can I prove that a massive sphere rotates becuase of its gravitational field.I thought about it and did the following:
The gravitational force applied to a mass m which is on the axis prependicular to the plane of a hollow ring and passing through its center is as follows
[itex]
{\it dF}={\frac {G{\it dM}\,mz}{ \left( {r}^{2}+{z}^{2} \right) ^{3/2}}}
[/itex]
If I integrate the equation above from z=0 to z=2R I should get the force applied to a point on a hollow sphere and I get:
[itex]
F=1/8\,{\frac {GMm\theta\,\ln \left( z \right) \sqrt {2}}{\pi \,{R}^{2}}}
[/itex]
[itex] \theta [/itex] is from 0 to [itex]2 \pi[/itex] and z from 0 to 2R.But as you can see,at z=0,it becomes infinity.So I wrote the taylor series of ln(z).But my calculations for [itex]\omega[/itex] didn't yeild 7.3 * 10^(-5) which is the angular velocity of earth.What's wrong?
thanks
The gravitational force applied to a mass m which is on the axis prependicular to the plane of a hollow ring and passing through its center is as follows
[itex]
{\it dF}={\frac {G{\it dM}\,mz}{ \left( {r}^{2}+{z}^{2} \right) ^{3/2}}}
[/itex]
If I integrate the equation above from z=0 to z=2R I should get the force applied to a point on a hollow sphere and I get:
[itex]
F=1/8\,{\frac {GMm\theta\,\ln \left( z \right) \sqrt {2}}{\pi \,{R}^{2}}}
[/itex]
[itex] \theta [/itex] is from 0 to [itex]2 \pi[/itex] and z from 0 to 2R.But as you can see,at z=0,it becomes infinity.So I wrote the taylor series of ln(z).But my calculations for [itex]\omega[/itex] didn't yeild 7.3 * 10^(-5) which is the angular velocity of earth.What's wrong?
thanks