- #1
josueortega
- 8
- 0
Hi everyone,
I am working on my own through Rudin's Principles of Mathematical Analysis and, after the demonstration of Cauchy - Schwarz Inequality, in Theorem 1.37, part (d), Rudin states:
$$|x \cdot y| \leqslant |x||y|$$
When he explains how to prove this, he simply states that this is an immediate consequence of Schwarz Inequality, which he defines as follows:
$$|\sum_{j=1}^{n}a_j \overline{b_j}|^2 \leqslant \sum_{j=1}^{n}|a_j|^2 \sum_{j=1}^{n}|b_j|^2$$
If someone can explain me how this two things are identical I would appreciate it a lot. My toughts so far:
$$|x \cdot y| \leqslant |x||y|$$ Take the square of this, which is:
$$ (x \cdot y)(x \cdot y) \leqslant \sum x_i^2 \sum y_i^2$$ and hence,
$$ (\sum x_iy_i)^2 \leqslant \sum x_i^2 \sum y_i^2$$ which is NOT the Schwarz Inequality!
I am working on my own through Rudin's Principles of Mathematical Analysis and, after the demonstration of Cauchy - Schwarz Inequality, in Theorem 1.37, part (d), Rudin states:
$$|x \cdot y| \leqslant |x||y|$$
When he explains how to prove this, he simply states that this is an immediate consequence of Schwarz Inequality, which he defines as follows:
$$|\sum_{j=1}^{n}a_j \overline{b_j}|^2 \leqslant \sum_{j=1}^{n}|a_j|^2 \sum_{j=1}^{n}|b_j|^2$$
If someone can explain me how this two things are identical I would appreciate it a lot. My toughts so far:
$$|x \cdot y| \leqslant |x||y|$$ Take the square of this, which is:
$$ (x \cdot y)(x \cdot y) \leqslant \sum x_i^2 \sum y_i^2$$ and hence,
$$ (\sum x_iy_i)^2 \leqslant \sum x_i^2 \sum y_i^2$$ which is NOT the Schwarz Inequality!