- #1
keroberous
- 15
- 1
Hi there. I'm having some trouble wrapping my head around some ideas of inflection points as they relate to the second derivative.
I know that an inflection point occurs when f''(x)=0 in most cases. This makes sense to me because at this inflection point the slopes of the tangent change from increasing to decreasing, so the rate of change of the changing slopes must be zero. This is the same reasoning why a turning point occurs when f'(x)=0 (the original function f changes from increasing to decreasing, or vice versa).
However, in some cases (like f(x)=x^4) it's possible for both the first and second derivatives to be zero at the same place and I'm not sure as to what the reasoning behind this is. In this case, f'(0)=0 meaning there is a turning point here, but f''(0)=0 also but this is not an inflection point. It makes sense that there shouldn't be an inflection point at a turning point, but then why is the second derivative zero? In this case as x increases, the slope of the tangent is always increasing, so by that logic shouldn't the second derivative never equal zero?
Thanks for any help here!
I know that an inflection point occurs when f''(x)=0 in most cases. This makes sense to me because at this inflection point the slopes of the tangent change from increasing to decreasing, so the rate of change of the changing slopes must be zero. This is the same reasoning why a turning point occurs when f'(x)=0 (the original function f changes from increasing to decreasing, or vice versa).
However, in some cases (like f(x)=x^4) it's possible for both the first and second derivatives to be zero at the same place and I'm not sure as to what the reasoning behind this is. In this case, f'(0)=0 meaning there is a turning point here, but f''(0)=0 also but this is not an inflection point. It makes sense that there shouldn't be an inflection point at a turning point, but then why is the second derivative zero? In this case as x increases, the slope of the tangent is always increasing, so by that logic shouldn't the second derivative never equal zero?
Thanks for any help here!