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jdcasey9
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Homework Statement
Let {fn} be a sequence of measurable functions defined on a measurable set E. Define E0 to be the set of points x in E at which {fn(x)} converges. Is the set E0 measurable?
Homework Equations
Proposition 2:
Let the function f be defined on a measurable set E. Then, f is measurable if and only if for each open set O, the inverse image of O under f, f-1(O) = {x[itex]\in[/itex]E | f(x) [itex]\in[/itex] 0}, is measurable.
The Attempt at a Solution
Since E0 = {x[itex]\in[/itex]E| {fn(x)} converge}, then {fn(x)} [itex]\in[/itex] O and by Proposition 2, E-10 is measurable. But, that doesn't mean that E is measurable...
Isn't it true that continuous E-1 being measurable implies E is measurable? Is that where I should go with this?
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