Sequence of Measurable Functions

In summary, the conversation discusses the measurability of a set E0 defined as the set of points at which a sequence of measurable functions converges. Proposition 2 states that a function is measurable if and only if the inverse image of an open set is measurable. It is mentioned that E0 is measurable, but this does not necessarily mean that E is measurable. The question of whether continuous E-1 being measurable implies E is measurable is also raised. The concept of lim inf and lim sup of a sequence of measurable functions is mentioned as a possible way to show that E0 is measurable.
  • #1
jdcasey9
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Homework Statement



Let {fn} be a sequence of measurable functions defined on a measurable set E. Define E0 to be the set of points x in E at which {fn(x)} converges. Is the set E0 measurable?

Homework Equations



Proposition 2:

Let the function f be defined on a measurable set E. Then, f is measurable if and only if for each open set O, the inverse image of O under f, f-1(O) = {x[itex]\in[/itex]E | f(x) [itex]\in[/itex] 0}, is measurable.

The Attempt at a Solution



Since E0 = {x[itex]\in[/itex]E| {fn(x)} converge}, then {fn(x)} [itex]\in[/itex] O and by Proposition 2, E-10 is measurable. But, that doesn't mean that E is measurable...

Isn't it true that continuous E-1 being measurable implies E is measurable? Is that where I should go with this?
 
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  • #2
jdcasey9 said:

Homework Statement



Let {fn} be a sequence of measurable functions defined on a measurable set E. Define E0 to be the set of points x in E at which {fn(x)} converges. Is the set E0 measurable?

Homework Equations



Proposition 2:

Let the function f be defined on a measurable set E. Then, f is measurable if and only if for each open set O, the inverse image of O under f, f-1(O) = {x[itex]\in[/itex]E | f(x) [itex]\in[/itex] 0}, is measurable.

The Attempt at a Solution



Since E0 = {x[itex]\in[/itex]E| {fn(x)} converge}, then {fn(x)} [itex]\in[/itex] O and by Proposition 2, E-10 is measurable. But, that doesn't mean that E is measurable...

Isn't it true that continuous E-1 being measurable implies E is measurable? Is that where I should go with this?

Have you shown lim inf and lim sup of a sequence of measurable functions are measurable (possibly with values in the extended reals)? The set of convergent points are where those two functions are equal.
 

FAQ: Sequence of Measurable Functions

What is a sequence of measurable functions?

A sequence of measurable functions is a collection of functions that are defined on the same domain and range, and each function is measurable with respect to a given measure.

Why is the concept of sequence of measurable functions important?

The concept of sequence of measurable functions is important because it allows us to prove results for a sequence of functions that hold for each individual function. It also allows us to study the convergence of a sequence of functions to a limit function.

How is the convergence of a sequence of measurable functions defined?

The convergence of a sequence of measurable functions is defined as the pointwise convergence, where for every point in the domain, the sequence of function values approaches the value of the limit function at that point.

What is the relationship between convergence of a sequence of measurable functions and continuity?

If a sequence of measurable functions converges pointwise to a limit function, and each function in the sequence is continuous, then the limit function is also continuous. However, the converse is not always true.

What are some examples of sequences of measurable functions?

Some examples of sequences of measurable functions include the sequence of indicator functions, Fourier series, and Taylor series. These sequences have important applications in various fields of mathematics and science.

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