- #1
JasonJo
- 429
- 2
let f,g be continuous functions from R to R and suppose that f(x)=g(x) for all rational points. prove that f(x)=g(x) for all x in R.
- i said that we know that since given any real number c, there exists a rational sequence (xn) such that xn converges to c, therefore we conclude that f(xn)=g(xn)=f(c)=g(c), and c is any real number, QED.
is this a good proof?
what about if we only knew that f(1/n)=g(1/n) for all n a natural number?
- i said we know that f(0)=g(0) since the sequence 1/n converges to 0, but other than that, not much else...am i missing something?
prove that for every c a real number, there exists a rational sequence converging to c.
- I am not sure how to prove this, my professor said to use the Nested Intervals Property, but I can't really establish the correct intervals
prove that for every c a real number, there exists an irrational sequence converging to c.
- again, not too sure about this one
- i said that we know that since given any real number c, there exists a rational sequence (xn) such that xn converges to c, therefore we conclude that f(xn)=g(xn)=f(c)=g(c), and c is any real number, QED.
is this a good proof?
what about if we only knew that f(1/n)=g(1/n) for all n a natural number?
- i said we know that f(0)=g(0) since the sequence 1/n converges to 0, but other than that, not much else...am i missing something?
prove that for every c a real number, there exists a rational sequence converging to c.
- I am not sure how to prove this, my professor said to use the Nested Intervals Property, but I can't really establish the correct intervals
prove that for every c a real number, there exists an irrational sequence converging to c.
- again, not too sure about this one