- #1
mahler1
- 222
- 0
I have to solve a bunch of exercises related to function series and in some of them they ask me whether a particular series converges uniformly if one differentiates it term by term. So here I came up with a doubt: When ##\sum_0^{\infty} f_n(x)## can be differentiated term by term? What hypothesis do I need to do that? Does the series have to converge to a differentiable function or I can differentiate each term without even asking the series to be convergent? I am very confused with this.