- #1
jostpuur
- 2,116
- 19
The claim:
If [itex]f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is integrable, and [itex]\phi:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is monotonic (hence continuous almost everywhere), then there exists [itex]\xi\in ]a,b[[/itex] such that
[tex]
\int\limits_a^b f(x)\phi(x)dx \;=\; \big(\lim_{x\to a^+}\phi(x)\big) \int\limits_a^{\xi} f(x)dx \;+\; \big(\lim_{x\to b^-}\phi(x)\big) \int\limits_{\xi}^b f(x)dx
[/tex]
Who knows how to prove that?
Or who knows a serious book on calculus, that would cover this? Or a publication that could be found in university libraries?
I found the claim from Wikipedia: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mean_value_theorem But no proof.
I don't remember where, but somewhere some years ago I found a website, that gave a proof for a weaker formulation of this theorem. It goes like this:
If [itex]f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is continuous, and [itex]\phi:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is differentiable such that [itex]\phi'\geq 0[/itex], then there exists [itex]\xi\in [a,b][/itex] such that
[tex]
\int\limits_a^b f(x)\phi(x)dx \;=\; \phi(a) \int\limits_a^{\xi} f(x)dx \;+\; \phi(b) \int\limits_{\xi}^b f(x)dx
[/tex]
This can be proven by first substituting
[tex]
f(x) = D_x\int\limits_a^x f(u)du
[/tex]
then integrating by parts, and then using the first mean value theorem.
If [itex]f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is integrable, and [itex]\phi:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is monotonic (hence continuous almost everywhere), then there exists [itex]\xi\in ]a,b[[/itex] such that
[tex]
\int\limits_a^b f(x)\phi(x)dx \;=\; \big(\lim_{x\to a^+}\phi(x)\big) \int\limits_a^{\xi} f(x)dx \;+\; \big(\lim_{x\to b^-}\phi(x)\big) \int\limits_{\xi}^b f(x)dx
[/tex]
Who knows how to prove that?
Or who knows a serious book on calculus, that would cover this? Or a publication that could be found in university libraries?
I found the claim from Wikipedia: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mean_value_theorem But no proof.
I don't remember where, but somewhere some years ago I found a website, that gave a proof for a weaker formulation of this theorem. It goes like this:
If [itex]f:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is continuous, and [itex]\phi:[a,b]\to\mathbb{R}[/itex] is differentiable such that [itex]\phi'\geq 0[/itex], then there exists [itex]\xi\in [a,b][/itex] such that
[tex]
\int\limits_a^b f(x)\phi(x)dx \;=\; \phi(a) \int\limits_a^{\xi} f(x)dx \;+\; \phi(b) \int\limits_{\xi}^b f(x)dx
[/tex]
This can be proven by first substituting
[tex]
f(x) = D_x\int\limits_a^x f(u)du
[/tex]
then integrating by parts, and then using the first mean value theorem.