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Could somebody explain with due brevity why/how the set of p-adic integers is homeomorphic to the Cantor set less one point for any prime p?
This is a quote from Wikipedia:Cantor Set: "The Cantor set is also homeomorphic to the p-adic integers, and, if one point is removed from it, to the p-adic numbers."
Can somebody explain this simply, I don'y really get p-adic #'s.
P.S. Not homework, don't want a proof, just understanding of it.
This is a quote from Wikipedia:Cantor Set: "The Cantor set is also homeomorphic to the p-adic integers, and, if one point is removed from it, to the p-adic numbers."
Can somebody explain this simply, I don'y really get p-adic #'s.
P.S. Not homework, don't want a proof, just understanding of it.