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babblingsia
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Consider an uncharged spherical conductor .It has a cavity carved out of it and there's a charge q in the cavity.Now you get an electric field outside the sphere.All fine.But why does Feynman say that "...no static distribution of charges inside a closed conductor can produce any fields outside.Shielding works both ways!In electrostatics-but not in varying fields- the fields on the two sides of a closed conducting shell are completely independent." Could someone please help me clear the inconsistencies?