- #1
evinda
Gold Member
MHB
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Hello! (Wave)
Suppose that $p,q$ are two distinct primes , $n=pq$ and $d=gcd(p-1,q-1)$.
I want to show that if $a^{n-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$ for some $a$ then $a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$.
That's what I have tried:
$
a^{pq-1}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow a^{pq-p+p-1}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow a^{p(q-1)+(p-1)}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow a^{Ad+Bd}\equiv 1 \pmod n$ for some $A,B \in \mathbb{Z}$.
Then we have $ a^{d(A+B)}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow \left (a^{d}\right )^{A+B}\equiv 1 \pmod n$.
But from this, we cannot deduce that $a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$, can we? (Thinking)
Suppose that $p,q$ are two distinct primes , $n=pq$ and $d=gcd(p-1,q-1)$.
I want to show that if $a^{n-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$ for some $a$ then $a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$.
That's what I have tried:
$
a^{pq-1}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow a^{pq-p+p-1}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow a^{p(q-1)+(p-1)}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow a^{Ad+Bd}\equiv 1 \pmod n$ for some $A,B \in \mathbb{Z}$.
Then we have $ a^{d(A+B)}\equiv 1 \pmod n \Rightarrow \left (a^{d}\right )^{A+B}\equiv 1 \pmod n$.
But from this, we cannot deduce that $a^d \equiv 1 \pmod{n}$, can we? (Thinking)