- #1
cateater2000
- 35
- 0
Hi there I'm having trouble with this question, any tips would be great.
Show the following is false, by giving an example of a function(s) f:X->A for which the equalities fail:
f(Y&Z)=f(Y)&f(Z);
thanks for your help.
Show the following is false, by giving an example of a function(s) f:X->A for which the equalities fail:
f(Y&Z)=f(Y)&f(Z);
thanks for your help.