- #1
mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
- 5,049
- 7
Hey!
Let $1 \leq p_1 \leq p_2 \leq +\infty$. Show that in a Lebesgue measurable $E\subset R^d$ with $0<m(E)<+\infty$ we have that $L^{p_2} \subsetneq L^{p_1}$.
Using Hölder's inequality I got that $||f||_{p_1} \leq ||f||_{p_2} \mu (E)^{1/p_1 \cdot q}$.
Is this correct so far?? How could I continue to show that $||f||_{p_1} < ||f||_{p_2}$ ?? (Wondering)
Or is there an other way to show this?? (Wondering)
Let $1 \leq p_1 \leq p_2 \leq +\infty$. Show that in a Lebesgue measurable $E\subset R^d$ with $0<m(E)<+\infty$ we have that $L^{p_2} \subsetneq L^{p_1}$.
Using Hölder's inequality I got that $||f||_{p_1} \leq ||f||_{p_2} \mu (E)^{1/p_1 \cdot q}$.
Is this correct so far?? How could I continue to show that $||f||_{p_1} < ||f||_{p_2}$ ?? (Wondering)
Or is there an other way to show this?? (Wondering)