Show intervals of real numbers have the same cardinality

In summary: Because if f is not one-to-one and onto, then there would be multiple functions that would map every element of (1,3) to an unique element of (5,15). But there can only be one function that satisfies these two conditions, and that is f.
  • #1
mathcnc
6
0

Homework Statement


Prove the intervals of real numbers (1,3) and (5,15) have the same cardinality by finding an appropriate bijective function of f:(1,3) ->(5,15) and verifying it is 1-1 and onto


Homework Equations


I know there are multiple ways to prove one to one and onto I am not sure
which one to use

However, what do i do to prove that cardinality are both infinite?

The Attempt at a Solution


Assume the intervals (1,3) and (5,15)
 
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  • #2


mathcnc said:
I know there are multiple ways to prove one to one and onto I am not sure
which one to use
You're getting ahead of yourself. You can't prove that a function is one to one and onto unless you have a function... and you haven't selected one yet!


However, what do i do to prove that cardinality are both infinite?
I think the easiest way would be to find a subset that is easy to prove infinite. But that wasn't what was asked of you... do you have an idea about how to use such a fact?
 
  • #3


i don't know I am so confused!
 
  • #4


(1,3) and (5,15) are pretty similar; one is just "longer" than the other. Try imagining each as a line segment without endpoints. What's a simple way to bijectively map points on one line segment to the other? Think about scaling and translation.
 
  • #5


so liek i would say that
(1,2) is a subset and it have infinite cardinality and so (1,5) does?
im sorry I am just having major issues with going about how to prove this
 
  • #6


mathcnc said:
so liek i would say that
(1,2) is a subset and it have infinite cardinality and so (1,5) does?
im sorry I am just having major issues with going about how to prove this

Ok, if you are that confused think about f(x)=5*x. Can you show that's a 1-1 and onto map from (1,3) to (5,15)? That's what you need to show they have the same cardinality.
 
  • #7


It is true that (1,2) and (1,5) are both infinite in size. Likewise, it is true that (1,3) and (5,15) are infinite in size. But that does not immediately mean that they all have the same size.

Consider your original question again. You want to prove that the intervals (1,3) and (5,15) are the same size i.e. have the same cardinality. Therefore, you need to show that each element in (1,3) has an unique corresponding element in (5,15). Likewise, every element in (5,15) has an unique corresponding element in (1,3).

Another way to think about it, and why your question wants you to "find an appropriate bijective function of f:(1,3) -> (5,15)" is that there is a function that maps every element of (1,3) to an unique element of (5,15). But for the two sets to have the same size, every element of (5,15) must also map to an unique element of (1,3). Why are we guaranteed this if f is one-to-one and onto (i.e. bijective)?
 

Related to Show intervals of real numbers have the same cardinality

1. What does it mean for two sets to have the same cardinality?

Two sets have the same cardinality if there exists a one-to-one correspondence between the elements of the two sets. This means that each element in one set is paired with exactly one element in the other set, and vice versa.

2. How do I prove that two sets have the same cardinality?

To prove that two sets have the same cardinality, you need to show that there exists a bijection (a function that is both one-to-one and onto) between the two sets. This can be done by explicitly constructing a bijection or by using a proof technique such as the Cantor-Bernstein-Schroeder theorem.

3. Can sets with infinite elements have the same cardinality?

Yes, sets with infinite elements can have the same cardinality. In fact, there are different levels of infinity, known as cardinal numbers, and two sets can have the same cardinality even if one set has infinitely more elements than the other.

4. How does the concept of cardinality apply to real numbers?

The cardinality of real numbers is known as the cardinality of the continuum, and it is denoted by the symbol "c". The continuum hypothesis states that the cardinality of the continuum is equal to the next smallest infinity, known as aleph-one. This means that the set of real numbers has a greater cardinality than the set of natural numbers, but the same cardinality as the set of all subsets of natural numbers.

5. What does it mean for intervals of real numbers to have the same cardinality?

When we say that intervals of real numbers have the same cardinality, we mean that the set of all real numbers within those intervals has the same cardinality. For example, the intervals [0,1) and [2,3) both contain an infinite number of real numbers, but they have the same cardinality because they can be put into one-to-one correspondence with each other.

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