- #1
Mr Davis 97
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Homework Statement
Let ##T## be a linear operator on a vector space ##V##, and let ##\lambda_1,\lambda_2, \dots, \lambda_n## be distinct eigenvalues of ##T##. If ##v_1, v_2, \dots , v_n## are eigenvectors of ##T## such that ##\lambda_i## corresponds to ##v_i \ (1 \le i \le k)##, then ##\{ v_1, v_2, \dots , v_n \}## is linearly independent.
Homework Equations
The Attempt at a Solution
The proof is by induction.
First, suppose that ##n=1##. Then ##v_1 \ne 0## since it is an eigenvector and hence ## \{ v_1 \}## is linearly independent.
Now assume that the theorem holds of ##n=k##, and that we have ##k+1## eigenvectors corresponding to distinct eigenvalues. We wish to show that these ##k+1## eigenvectors are linearly independent.
Suppose that ##a_1, a_2 , \dots, a_n## are scalars such that ##a_1 v_1 + a_2 v_2 + \cdots + a_{k+1} v_{k+1} = 0## (1). Apply ##T## to both sides to get ##a_1 \lambda_1 v_1 + a_2 \lambda_2 v_2 + \cdots + a_{k+1} \lambda_{k+1} v_{k+1} = 0## (2).
Now, my plan to continue the proof is to multiply (1) by ##\lambda_{k+1}## and then subtract (2) from it to get a linear relation only in terms of the vectors ##v_1, v_2 , \dots , v_k##. However, I am concerned about assuming what ##\lambda_{k+1}## is. Do I need to split the proof into two cases, one where ##\lambda_{k+1} = 0## and one where ##\lambda_{k+1} \ne 0##?