Show that the limit (1+z/n)^n=e^z holds

In summary, the limit \((1+z/n)^n=e^z\) can be demonstrated using the definition of the exponential function and properties of limits. As \(n\) approaches infinity, the expression \((1+z/n)^n\) approaches \(e^z\) due to the fact that \(\lim_{n \to \infty} (1 + x/n)^n = e^x\) for any real number \(x\). By substituting \(x\) with \(z\), we confirm that the limit holds true.
  • #1
Lambda96
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75
Homework Statement
Show that the following applies with tasks b and c ##\lim_{n\to\infty} \Bigl( 1 + \frac{z}{n} \Bigr)^n = e^z##
Relevant Equations
Tasks b and c
Hi,

I have problems proving task d

Bildschirmfoto 2023-12-16 um 13.47.11.png

I then started with task c and rewrote it as follows ##\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N}\Bigl( \frac{z^k}{k!} - \binom{n}{k} \frac{z^k}{n^k} \Bigr)=0 \quad \rightarrow \quad \lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!} = \lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \binom{n}{k} \frac{z^k}{n^k}##

I can use the right-hand side of the equation, i.e. ##\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \binom{n}{k} \frac{z^k}{n^k}## with the help of the binomial theorem rewrite as follows ##\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \binom{n}{k} \frac{z^k}{n^k}= \lim_{n\to\infty} \Big( 1+ \frac{z}{n} \Bigr)^n ##

Now I just have to show that the left-hand side is ##\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!}=e^z##. Unfortunately, I can't get any further here, I assume that I can use task 1b for this, but unfortunately I don't know how.
 
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  • #2
I suggest writing out
$$
{n \choose k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}
$$
and work from there.
 
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  • #3
Thank you Orodruin for your help 👍

I can rewrite ##\binom{n}{k}## as follows ##\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k! (n-k)!}= \prod\limits_{j = 1}^{k} \frac{n+1-j}{j}## Unfortunately, I can't get any further with this either

But I'm also wondering if I'm misinterpreting the term on the left, I thought that the limit has no influence on the sum, but ##\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!}## should be ##\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{z^k}{k!}##, right?
 
  • #4
Lambda96 said:
Thank you Orodruin for your help 👍

I can rewrite ##\binom{n}{k}## as follows ##\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k! (n-k)!}= \prod\limits_{j = 1}^{k} \frac{n+1-j}{j}## Unfortunately, I can't get any further with this either
The last step here, while correct, is a step in the wrong direction. I suggest inserting into the expression and factorizing out the k! as that is what should appear in the expansion of the exponential.
 
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  • #5
Consider [tex]\begin{split}
\sum_{k=0}^N \left(\frac{z^k}{k!} - \frac{n!}{(n-k)!k!}\frac{z^k}{n^k}\right) &=
\sum_{k=0}^N \frac{z^k}{k!}\left(1 - \frac{n!}{(n-k)!n^k}\right) \\ &=
\sum_{k=0}^N \frac{z^k}{k!} \left(1 - \frac{n(n-1)(n-2) \dots (n-k + 1)}{n^k}\right)
\end{split}[/tex] Note that [itex]N[/itex] is fixed, while [itex]n \to \infty[/itex].
 
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  • #6
Lambda96 said:
But I'm also wondering if I'm misinterpreting the term on the left, I thought that the limit has no influence on the sum, but ##\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum\limits_{k=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!}## should be ##\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{z^k}{k!}##, right?
No, as @pasmith said, ##N## is fixed at some finite value while ##n\to \infty##. ##N## is not ##n##.
 
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  • #7
Thank you Orodruin and pasmith for your help 👍👍

If I now calculate the limit ##\lim_{n\to\infty}## of ##\sum\limits_{n=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!} \biggl( 1 - \frac{n(n-1)(n-2) \ldots (n-k+1)}{n^k} \biggr)##, the result is:

$$\lim_{n\to\infty} \sum\limits_{n=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!} \biggl( 1 - \frac{n(n-1)(n-2) \ldots (n-k+1)}{n^k} \biggr)= \sum\limits_{n=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!} \biggl( 1 - \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{n(n-1)(n-2) \ldots (n-k+1)}{n^k} \biggr)=\sum\limits_{n=0}^{N} \frac{z^k}{k!} \biggl( 1 - 1 \biggr)=0$$

Unfortunately, I don't know now how to solve task d, i.e. ##\lim_{n\to\infty} \biggl( 1 + \frac{z}{n} \biggr)^n =e^z ## with the expression from task b and c
 

FAQ: Show that the limit (1+z/n)^n=e^z holds

What is the definition of the limit in this context?

The limit in this context refers to the expression \( \lim_{n \to \infty} \left(1 + \frac{z}{n}\right)^n \), which we aim to show equals \( e^z \). This is a fundamental result in calculus and exponential functions.

Why is this limit important?

This limit is important because it provides a foundational understanding of the exponential function \( e^z \). It is used in various fields of mathematics, including calculus, complex analysis, and probability theory, among others.

What are the steps to prove this limit?

The proof typically involves taking the natural logarithm of the expression, simplifying it, and using properties of limits and the definition of the exponential function. Specifically, one shows that \( \ln \left( \left(1 + \frac{z}{n}\right)^n \right) \) approaches \( z \) as \( n \) approaches infinity, and then exponentiates the result to obtain \( e^z \).

Can you provide a detailed proof of the limit?

Sure! Consider \( \ln \left( \left(1 + \frac{z}{n}\right)^n \right) = n \ln \left(1 + \frac{z}{n}\right) \). For large \( n \), using the Taylor series expansion for \( \ln(1 + x) \approx x - \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{3} - \cdots \), we get \( \ln \left(1 + \frac{z}{n}\right) \approx \frac{z}{n} - \frac{z^2}{2n^2} + \cdots \). Thus, \( n \ln \left(1 + \frac{z}{n}\right) \approx n \left( \frac{z}{n} - \frac{z^2}{2n^2} + \cdots \right) = z - \frac{z^2}{2n} + \cdots \). As \( n \to \infty \), the higher-order terms vanish, leaving \( z \). Therefore, \( \ln \left( \left(1 + \frac{z}{n}\right)^n \right) \to z \), and exponentiating both sides gives \( \left(1 + \frac{z}{n}\right)^n \to e^z \).

Are there any applications of this limit in real-world scenarios?

Yes, this limit has numerous applications in real-world scenarios. For instance, it is used in compound interest calculations in

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