Show that X ⊂ ℜn has measure 0 if and only if ε > 0

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In summary, the conversation is about proving that a set X is equal to the union of an infinite sequence of balls with a sum of radii less than epsilon if and only if X has a measure of 0. The conversation also includes a request for the person to show their attempt at the solution or else the thread will be deleted.
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Riam
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Homework Statement



Please I need your help in this question. I don't know how to answer it.

The question: Show that X ⊂ ℜn has measure 0 if and only if ε > 0 there exists an infinite sequence of balls

B_i ={ x ∈ R^n| |x-a_i | < r_i} with ∑ r[itex]^{n}_{i}[/itex] < ε such that X ⊂ ∪ [itex]^{\infty}_{i =1}[/itex]B_i



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The Attempt at a Solution

 
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  • #2


What have you tried?
 
  • #3


Please post an attempt at the solution or this thread will be deleted.

Also it might be necessary to define your terms. How did you define "measure 0" etc.
 
  • #4


I said
choose ε > 0, , for n = 1, i = 1, let a be the center of the ball and raduis r. if | x- a| < r with Ʃ r < ε such that X [itex]\subset[/itex] B[itex]_{1}[/itex]. and keep trying for n =2 and generalise it? this is my guess?
 
  • #5


And how did you define "measure 0"??
 

FAQ: Show that X ⊂ ℜn has measure 0 if and only if ε > 0

What does it mean for a set to have measure 0?

Having measure 0 means that the set has a 0-dimensional volume, or in other words, it takes up no space in the given n-dimensional space.

What is the significance of X ⊂ ℜn in this statement?

X ⊂ ℜn indicates that the set X is a subset of the n-dimensional Euclidean space. This is important because it helps define the dimensions and characteristics of the set.

How is the measure 0 of a set related to ε > 0?

The statement "X has measure 0 if and only if ε > 0" means that the set X has measure 0 if and only if for any positive number ε, the set can be covered by a collection of open intervals of total length less than ε. In other words, the smaller the value of ε, the closer the set is to having measure 0.

Can you provide an example of a set with measure 0?

One example of a set with measure 0 is the Cantor set, which is a fractal construction made up of intervals that are progressively removed. This set has measure 0 because it can be covered by a finite number of intervals, each with a length less than ε, for any positive ε value.

How is this statement relevant to mathematical analysis or real analysis?

The statement "X has measure 0 if and only if ε > 0" is relevant to mathematical analysis and real analysis because it is used to characterize the size and properties of sets in different dimensions. It helps us understand the concept of measure and how it relates to the geometry of sets in n-dimensional spaces.

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