MHB Showing Conditional Independence Does Not Imply Independence

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Conditional independence of events X and Y given Z does not imply that X and Y are independent. An example using coin tosses illustrates that while X (first coin tails) and Y (second coin tails) can be conditionally independent given Z (both coins same), they are not independent overall. To demonstrate this, one can analyze a basketball player's shot outcomes, where the probability of scoring on the second shot depends on whether the first shot was made. By calculating the probabilities of these events conditioned on a third event, it can be shown that the product of the conditional probabilities does not equal the joint conditional probability. This highlights the distinction between conditional independence and overall independence.
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I know this isn't quite advanced probability, but I'm not sure if I have this right.

I want to show that conditional independence of $X$ and $Y$ given $Z$ does not imply independence of $X$ and $Y$ (and vice versa).

So I used coin tosses where:

$X=\{$ first coin tails $\}$

$Y=\{$ second coin tails $\}$

$Z=\{$ both coins same $\}$

I can show that independence does not imply conditional independence.

How do I show that conditional independence does not imply independence?
 
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Well to answer such a question, you need to take two events that are not independent and show they are conditionally independent given a third event. Example:A basketball player has two shots.Let A be the event that the player scores the first shot. Assume P(A) = 0.3Let B be the event that the player scores the second shot. Assume P(B/A) = 0.2 and P(B/A' ) = 0.4 (if he/she scores the first shot, he/she has less probability of scoring the second)Let C be the event that both shot are scored. Clearly, A and B are not independent. Try to find P(A/C) and P(B/C) and P( (A and B)/C) and prove that P(A/C)*P(B/C) = P( (A and B) /C).
 
I'm taking a look at intuitionistic propositional logic (IPL). Basically it exclude Double Negation Elimination (DNE) from the set of axiom schemas replacing it with Ex falso quodlibet: ⊥ → p for any proposition p (including both atomic and composite propositions). In IPL, for instance, the Law of Excluded Middle (LEM) p ∨ ¬p is no longer a theorem. My question: aside from the logic formal perspective, is IPL supposed to model/address some specific "kind of world" ? Thanks.
I was reading a Bachelor thesis on Peano Arithmetic (PA). PA has the following axioms (not including the induction schema): $$\begin{align} & (A1) ~~~~ \forall x \neg (x + 1 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A2) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + 1 =y + 1 \to x = y) \nonumber \\ & (A3) ~~~~ \forall x (x + 0 = x) \nonumber \\ & (A4) ~~~~ \forall xy (x + (y +1) = (x + y ) + 1) \nonumber \\ & (A5) ~~~~ \forall x (x \cdot 0 = 0) \nonumber \\ & (A6) ~~~~ \forall xy (x \cdot (y + 1) = (x \cdot y) + x) \nonumber...

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