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Master1022
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- Why does the DTFT of a sinusoidal signal with an integral number of cycles in ## N ## samples yield a spectrum with two peaks
Hi,
I was recently reading about the discrete Fourier transform and its application to a basic sinusoidal signal. If we know that it has an integer number of cycles in ## N ## samples (and thus no leakage), why would there be two peaks in the spectrum: one at ## m ## and another at ## N - m## (as shown in the image below)? I am guessing that ## m ## is the number of samples per cycle. It makes sense that there is a peak at ## m ##, but it isn't immediately clear why there should be one at ## N - m##. I can see the apparent symmetry of the term, but cannot intuitively reason why it should be present. I would appreciate any help or guidance as to why this is the case.
By looking at the mathematical form of the DFT, we have:
[tex] F(n) = \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1} f[k] e^{-j\frac{2\pi n}{N} k} [/tex]
so would the following be correct?
[tex] F(m) = \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1} f[k] e^{-j\frac{2\pi m}{N} k} [/tex]
[tex] F(N - m) = \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1} f[k] e^{-j\frac{2\pi (N - m)}{N} k} = \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1} f[k] e^{-j2 \pi k(1 - \frac{m}{N})} [/tex]
[tex] \rightarrow \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1} f[k] e^{j2 \pi k \frac{m}{N}} e^{-j2 \pi k} \rightarrow \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1} f[k] e^{j2 \pi k \frac{m}{N}} [/tex]
because ## e^{-j2 \pi k} = 1 ## for an integer ## k ##. Then somehow due to symmetry, this causes the peak at ## N - m## ( I am not really sure on the exact logic for this last part).
Thanks in advance.
I was recently reading about the discrete Fourier transform and its application to a basic sinusoidal signal. If we know that it has an integer number of cycles in ## N ## samples (and thus no leakage), why would there be two peaks in the spectrum: one at ## m ## and another at ## N - m## (as shown in the image below)? I am guessing that ## m ## is the number of samples per cycle. It makes sense that there is a peak at ## m ##, but it isn't immediately clear why there should be one at ## N - m##. I can see the apparent symmetry of the term, but cannot intuitively reason why it should be present. I would appreciate any help or guidance as to why this is the case.
[tex] F(n) = \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1} f[k] e^{-j\frac{2\pi n}{N} k} [/tex]
so would the following be correct?
[tex] F(m) = \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1} f[k] e^{-j\frac{2\pi m}{N} k} [/tex]
[tex] F(N - m) = \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1} f[k] e^{-j\frac{2\pi (N - m)}{N} k} = \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1} f[k] e^{-j2 \pi k(1 - \frac{m}{N})} [/tex]
[tex] \rightarrow \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1} f[k] e^{j2 \pi k \frac{m}{N}} e^{-j2 \pi k} \rightarrow \sum_{k = 0}^{N - 1} f[k] e^{j2 \pi k \frac{m}{N}} [/tex]
because ## e^{-j2 \pi k} = 1 ## for an integer ## k ##. Then somehow due to symmetry, this causes the peak at ## N - m## ( I am not really sure on the exact logic for this last part).
Thanks in advance.