- #1
Pinu7
- 275
- 5
Consider a Euclidean space or a manifold or whatever. Furthermore, consider two regions on this space. If one can construct a diffeomorphism between the points from one region to the other, does this imply that the two regions are homeomorphic?
My gut feeling is "yes," but I would like a confirmation with maybe an explanation.
My gut feeling is "yes," but I would like a confirmation with maybe an explanation.