Simple, yet ambiguous integral question

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In summary, the definite integral of tanx from -0.3 to 0.3 is 0, not 2, due to the fact that the antiderivative of tanx is not sec^2x, and because tanx is an odd function, making the integral over a symmetric interval equal to 0.
  • #1
TheExibo
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Homework Statement



Evaluate the definite (from -0.3 to 0.3) integral ∫tanxdx

Homework Equations



(dy/dx)tanx=(secx)^2

The Attempt at a Solution



Using the anti-derivative, I got to (sec(0.3))^2-(sec(-0.3))^2, which gives approximately 2. However, if the derivative is sketched out, and the area underneath is found, the answer is then 0.

I found this happening with other similar questions as well. What could be going on?
 
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  • #2
## \frac{d}{dx} \tan x=\sec^2 x ## implies ## \int \sec^2 x \ dx=\tan x##, not ## \int \tan x \ dx=\sec^2 x##!
##\tan x## is an odd function of x so its definite integral over -b to b, for any real b, is 0.
Of course, for some b, the interval may contain a singular point of ##\tan x## in which case the definite integral would diverge.
 
  • #3
TheExibo said:

Homework Statement



Evaluate the definite (from -0.3 to 0.3) integral ∫tanxdx

Homework Equations



(dy/dx)tanx=(secx)^2

The Attempt at a Solution



Using the anti-derivative, I got to (sec(0.3))^2-(sec(-0.3))^2, which gives approximately 2. However, if the derivative is sketched out, and the area underneath is found, the answer is then 0.

I found this happening with other similar questions as well. What could be going on?

You have the wrong antiderivative, but that is not your only error: you should get an answer of 0 (not ##\approx## 2) because ##\sec^2(0.3) = \sec^2(-0.3)##.
 

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