- #1
Dustinsfl
- 2,281
- 5
Given the following expression
\[
\mathcal{P}_{n}(0) = \left.\frac{1}{2^{n}n!}\frac{d^{n}}{dx^{n}}
\sum_{k = 0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}(x^2)^k(-1)^{n - k}\right|_{x = 0},
\qquad (*)
\]
I know for \(k\) even we get
\[
\mathcal{P}_{n}(0) = \frac{1}{2^{n}n!}\binom{n}{\frac{n}{2}}n!(-1)^{n / 2}.
\qquad (**)
\]
However, I don't see how this is done. Can someone explain how we go from \((*)\) to \((**)\)?
\[
\mathcal{P}_{n}(0) = \left.\frac{1}{2^{n}n!}\frac{d^{n}}{dx^{n}}
\sum_{k = 0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}(x^2)^k(-1)^{n - k}\right|_{x = 0},
\qquad (*)
\]
I know for \(k\) even we get
\[
\mathcal{P}_{n}(0) = \frac{1}{2^{n}n!}\binom{n}{\frac{n}{2}}n!(-1)^{n / 2}.
\qquad (**)
\]
However, I don't see how this is done. Can someone explain how we go from \((*)\) to \((**)\)?