- #1
Natasha1
- 494
- 9
Am I right in saying that the integral of 1/(x-6)^2 dx
= (x-6)^-1 / -1
= - 1 / (x-6)
= (x-6)^-1 / -1
= - 1 / (x-6)
siddharth said:Add the Integration constant, and you are correct.
TD said:When we write [itex]\int x dx[/itex] we're looking for the function(s) which give x again if we take the derivative. Now, you know this integral is x²/2 since (x²/2)' = x but when you add a constant, it's still valid: (x²/2 + c)' = x. This is because the derivative of a constant is zero.
The first step is to use the substitution u = x-6, which will transform the integral into 1/u^2. Then, use the power rule for integration to get -1/u + C. Finally, substitute back in for u and simplify the expression.
No, the integral cannot be simplified any further. The final expression should be in the form -1/(x-6) + C.
To check the accuracy, you can differentiate the simplified integral and see if it matches the original integrand. If it does, then the simplified integral is correct.
One common mistake is forgetting to substitute back in for u after using the substitution method. Another mistake is not applying the power rule for integration correctly.
Yes, the simplified integral is only valid for x ≠ 6, as the original integrand is undefined at x = 6. So the domain of the simplified integral is (-∞, 6) ∪ (6, ∞).