Simultaneously Measuring Entangled Particles

In summary, when measuring the spins of entangled particles simultaneously with respect to the reference frame of the source, they will always be opposite spins as predicted by the theory. However, it is uncertain if the particles can be measured instantly, and it is believed that they will remain opposite even during the uncertain, non-measured state. The distance between the particles does not affect the "instant" action of the measurement, leading to the concept of "spooky" action at a distance. The Copenhagen interpretation suggests that the wave function collapses as soon as one particle is measured, while the Many Worlds interpretation suggests that both possibilities exist in different worlds. There is no single experiment that cannot be explained without the wave function collapse, and there is no known explanation for
  • #36
Joncon said:
I've also heard a suggestion that the "first" measurement may send a signal backwards in time to when the entangled particles were first produced, ensuring that the spins are always opposite.

This seems to solve the issue about the ordering of the , and removes a bit of the "spookiness" involved with the particles being spatially separated.
I'm not sure what other issues this might create though. And I can't think of an which could test for this.

Interesting though ...

The Conference...

http://www.chapman.edu/research-and-institutions/quantum-studies/speakers-schedule.aspx

Aharonov, Hartle, Gross, Unruh, Pearle, Leggett, Turok, Gisin, Carroll, Vaidman, Steinberg......!


talks on video

.
 
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  • #37
mfb said:
No. In every frame, there is a description which does not involve any propagation backwards in time. And all frames give the same measurements.

Could you please elaborate? From one reference point, A collapses the system and as a result B has a defined spin. From another reference point, the measurement of B seems to happen first and collapses the system. As a result, A takes a defined spin. I don't see how the instantaneous action does not violate causality. I'm probably misunderstanding something.

As a side question, has it been proven empirically (somehow) that the spins are actually undefined before measurement? I'm guessing this is impossible. btw, I'm an engineer not a physicist so I'm sorry if the answers are obvious. Thanks.
 
  • #38
myshadow said:
Could you please elaborate? From one reference point, A collapses the system and as a result B has a defined spin. From another reference point, the measurement of B seems to happen first and collapses the system. As a result, A takes a defined spin.
Both reference frames have their own time-order of the events - you cannot transmit information with those measurements, so you do not need a unique ordering of those events.

As a side question, has it been proven empirically (somehow) that the spins are actually undefined before measurement? I'm guessing this is impossible. btw, I'm an engineer not a physicist so I'm sorry if the answers are obvious. Thanks.
Look up Bell's theorem. It has, and it is a very interesting experiment.
 

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